Option (c) is correct

Explanation: 

• The Supreme Court’s recent hearing on the constitutionality of electoral bonds has brought critical attention to a core aspect of Indian democracy, the funding of political parties.
• Statement 1 is correct: Electoral trusts established after 2013 must declare details of funds received and disbursed, following Election Commission(ECI) guidelines.
• Formation Criteria: Under the scheme, any company registered under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956, is eligible to form an electoral trust.
• Statement 2 is correct: Eligibility for Donation: As per Section 17CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, any citizen of India, a company registered in India, or a firm, Hindu Undivided Family, or association of persons living in India can contribute to an electoral trust.
• Statement 3 is correct: They must donate 95% of contributions received in a financial year to political parties registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
• Electoral bonds(EB), on the other hand, are exempt from disclosure requirements. 
• Parties inform the ECI of the aggregate donations received through EBs, but give no details of the donors, which they are required to do in case of donations in cash or by cheque or bank transactions over Rs.20,000 each.

Option (d) is correct

Explanation: 

• The Court of Chief Commissioner of Persons with Disabilities delivered two landmark judgments that are poised to reshape attitudes towards Divyangjan (persons with disabilities) on a large scale.
• Under new statute Section 74 of RPwD Act, 2016 provides for appointment of a Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities and two Commissioners to assist the Chief Commissioner at the Centre.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The Office of the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities was set up under Section 57 of The Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights & Full Participation) Act, 1995. 
• The office has been mandated to take steps to safeguard the rights of persons with disabilities.
• The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act was enacted in the year 2016 and came into force from 19th April, 2017.
• Statement 2 is not correct: There are now 21 different sorts of disabilities, up from the previous seven, and the Central Government is empowered to add additional.

Option (c) is correct

Explanation: 

• Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud stated that the power to punish for contempt of court is not meant to protect judges from criticism but to prevent interference in the dispensation of justice.
• Statement 1 is correct: Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution empower the Supreme Court and high courts to punish for contempt respectively. 
• The procedure to operationalize it was enacted in the Contempt of Courts Act, of 1971.
• The Contempt of Courts Act, of 1971 divides contempt of court into two categories: Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
• Statement 2 is correct: Fair reporting of judicial proceedings does not amount to contempt of court. 

Option(c) is correct

Explanation: 

• The executive board of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) has approved a proposal to make a 50 percent increase in the quota allocated to members in proportion to their current quotas.
• Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure. 
• Statement 1 is correct: The IMF’s board of governors conducts general quota reviews at least every five years. 
• Statement 2 is correct: Any quota changes require approval by 85 percent of the total voting power, and a member’s own quota cannot be changed without its consent.
• Statement 3 is correct: Quotas are denominated in  special drawing rights (SDR), the IMF’s unit of account. 
• The SDR is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves.

Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Union Home Minister recently said that 168 villages along the China border that did not have any connectivity yet would be connected by road and other forms of communication in the next one year with the help of Vibrant Village programme(VVP).
• Statement 1 is not correct: It is a Centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• VVP was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23 (to 2025-26) for development of villages on the northern border, thus improving the quality of life of people living in identified border villages.
• Statement 2 is correct: It will cover the border areas of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Ladakh.
• Statement 3 is correct:  Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats.
• Statement 4 is correct: There will not be overlap with the Border Area Development Programme.