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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bharat Ratna:
It is the highest civilian award in the country.
The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.
The award carries a monetary grant of rupees one crore.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Bharat Ratna, the country’s highest civilian award instituted in 1954, is given in recognition of exceptional service and performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for this award.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President. The number of annual awards is usually restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. However, in 2024, it was awarded to five people.
Statement 3 is incorrect: On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The award does not carry any monetary grant. The award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name. However, should an award winner consider it necessary, he or she may use the following expression in their biodata or letterhead or visiting card etc. to indicate that he or she is a recipient of the award: ‘Awarded Bharat Ratna by the President’ or ‘Recipient of Bharat Ratna Award’.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Bharat Ratna, the country’s highest civilian award instituted in 1954, is given in recognition of exceptional service and performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for this award.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President. The number of annual awards is usually restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. However, in 2024, it was awarded to five people.
Statement 3 is incorrect: On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The award does not carry any monetary grant. The award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name. However, should an award winner consider it necessary, he or she may use the following expression in their biodata or letterhead or visiting card etc. to indicate that he or she is a recipient of the award: ‘Awarded Bharat Ratna by the President’ or ‘Recipient of Bharat Ratna Award’.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sovereign Gold Bonds Scheme (SGB):
It will be issued by Reserve Bank India on behalf of the Government of India.
The minimum permissible investment will be 1 gram of gold.
Only the Delhi branch of the State Bank of India is authorised to accept the subscription.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
The Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was launched by Govt in November 2015 under the Gold Monetisation Scheme. Under the scheme, the issues are made open for subscription in tranches by RBI in consultation with GOI. RBI Notifies the terms and conditions of the scheme from time to time.
Statement 1 is correct: The bond will be issued by Reserve Bank India on behalf of the Government of India. The Bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals (in his capacity as an individual, or on behalf of a minor child, or jointly with any other individual), HUFs, Trusts, Universities and Charitable Institutions. Know-your-customer (KYC) norms will be the same as those for the purchase of physical gold. KYC documents such as Voter ID, Aadhaar card/PAN or TAN /Passport will be required.
Statement 2 is correct: The Bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram. The tenor of the Bond will be for a period of 8 years with an exit option in the 5th, 6th and 7th year, to be exercised on the interest payment dates. The minimum permissible investment will be 1 gram of gold. The maximum limit of subscribed shall be 4 KG for individuals, 4 Kg for HUF and 20 Kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal year (April-March) notified by the Government from time to time. A self-declaration to this effect will be obtained. The annual ceiling will include bonds subscribed under different tranches during initial issuance by the Government and those purchased from the Secondary Market.
Statement 3 is incorrect: All the branches of the State Bank of India are authorised to accept the subscription. These bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to the ordinary gold loan mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time. The lien on the bond shall be marked in the depository by the authorised banks.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
The Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was launched by Govt in November 2015 under the Gold Monetisation Scheme. Under the scheme, the issues are made open for subscription in tranches by RBI in consultation with GOI. RBI Notifies the terms and conditions of the scheme from time to time.
Statement 1 is correct: The bond will be issued by Reserve Bank India on behalf of the Government of India. The Bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals (in his capacity as an individual, or on behalf of a minor child, or jointly with any other individual), HUFs, Trusts, Universities and Charitable Institutions. Know-your-customer (KYC) norms will be the same as those for the purchase of physical gold. KYC documents such as Voter ID, Aadhaar card/PAN or TAN /Passport will be required.
Statement 2 is correct: The Bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram. The tenor of the Bond will be for a period of 8 years with an exit option in the 5th, 6th and 7th year, to be exercised on the interest payment dates. The minimum permissible investment will be 1 gram of gold. The maximum limit of subscribed shall be 4 KG for individuals, 4 Kg for HUF and 20 Kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal year (April-March) notified by the Government from time to time. A self-declaration to this effect will be obtained. The annual ceiling will include bonds subscribed under different tranches during initial issuance by the Government and those purchased from the Secondary Market.
Statement 3 is incorrect: All the branches of the State Bank of India are authorised to accept the subscription. These bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to the ordinary gold loan mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time. The lien on the bond shall be marked in the depository by the authorised banks.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to the Olive ridley turtles:
Arribada is their unique nesting process where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
They are listed as vulnerable in the IUCN red list.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
Statement 2 is correct:The species is recognised as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red List.
Kemp’s ridley sea turtles are considered the smallest marine turtles in the world and are also the most endangered. The Kemp’s ridley has a triangular-shaped head and a slightly hooked beak with large crushing surfaces. This turtle’s diet consists mainly of swimming crabs but may also include fish, jellyfish, and an array of molluscs. Foraging zones range from the Yucatán Peninsula to southern Florida but primarily occur on the Gulf of Mexico’s continental shelf. Because of its long migration patterns, the Kemp’s ridley sea turtle spends much of its life in isolation. Socialisation typically occurs during mating and nesting.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
Statement 2 is correct:The species is recognised as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red List.
Kemp’s ridley sea turtles are considered the smallest marine turtles in the world and are also the most endangered. The Kemp’s ridley has a triangular-shaped head and a slightly hooked beak with large crushing surfaces. This turtle’s diet consists mainly of swimming crabs but may also include fish, jellyfish, and an array of molluscs. Foraging zones range from the Yucatán Peninsula to southern Florida but primarily occur on the Gulf of Mexico’s continental shelf. Because of its long migration patterns, the Kemp’s ridley sea turtle spends much of its life in isolation. Socialisation typically occurs during mating and nesting.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to the Payment Aggregator:
It is a third-party service provider that enables customers to make and businesses to accept payments online.
They enable end-users to access multiple payment methods.
They do not store any sensitive information
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: A payment aggregator is a third-party service provider that enables customers to make and businesses to accept payments online. Payment aggregators enable their clients to accept various payment methods such as debit cards, credit cards, cardless EMIs, UPI, bank transfers, e-wallets, and e-mandates. Similarly, they also enable disbursing payments to various stakeholders, such as partners, employees, suppliers, and authorities.
Statement 2 is correct: Payment aggregators offer several benefits, addressing critical aspects like the secure processing of payment data and fraud detection and prevention. Payment aggregators also enable end-users to access multiple payment methods and enjoy a seamless checkout experience.
Statement 3 is correct: Payment-related information is highly sensitive, and handling it requires the utmost care. Compromising this data can have severe consequences for your business. To ensure information security, payment aggregators:
Invest in the highest quality infrastructure
Do not store any sensitive information
Encrypt sensitive data to combat unauthorised access
Tokenise digital card numbers to prevent leakage
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: A payment aggregator is a third-party service provider that enables customers to make and businesses to accept payments online. Payment aggregators enable their clients to accept various payment methods such as debit cards, credit cards, cardless EMIs, UPI, bank transfers, e-wallets, and e-mandates. Similarly, they also enable disbursing payments to various stakeholders, such as partners, employees, suppliers, and authorities.
Statement 2 is correct: Payment aggregators offer several benefits, addressing critical aspects like the secure processing of payment data and fraud detection and prevention. Payment aggregators also enable end-users to access multiple payment methods and enjoy a seamless checkout experience.
Statement 3 is correct: Payment-related information is highly sensitive, and handling it requires the utmost care. Compromising this data can have severe consequences for your business. To ensure information security, payment aggregators:
Invest in the highest quality infrastructure
Do not store any sensitive information
Encrypt sensitive data to combat unauthorised access
Tokenise digital card numbers to prevent leakage
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements about Dhokra Shilpkala:
It utilises the lost-wax technique, or cire perdue, for metal casting.
The theme of the art form is nature, mythology, and daily life.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Dhokra sculptures are a tradition that dates back over 4,000 years, hailed as one of the oldest known methods of metal casting. The origins can be traced back to the tribal communities residing in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, where it evolved as an integral part of their cultural and religious practices. It utilises the lost-wax technique, or cire perdue, for metal casting.
Statement 2 is correct: The beauty of Dhokra Shilpkala lies in rustic charm and organic motifs with:
Inspiration drawn from nature, mythology, and daily life.
Motifs include animals, birds, deities, and tribal symbols.
Miniature figurines include jewellery, sculptures, and functional objects.
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Dhokra sculptures are a tradition that dates back over 4,000 years, hailed as one of the oldest known methods of metal casting. The origins can be traced back to the tribal communities residing in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, where it evolved as an integral part of their cultural and religious practices. It utilises the lost-wax technique, or cire perdue, for metal casting.
Statement 2 is correct: The beauty of Dhokra Shilpkala lies in rustic charm and organic motifs with:
Inspiration drawn from nature, mythology, and daily life.
Motifs include animals, birds, deities, and tribal symbols.
Miniature figurines include jewellery, sculptures, and functional objects.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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