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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
With reference to the International Organization for Migration (IOM), consider the following statements:
IOM was established in 1951 to help resettle people displaced by World War II.
India is not an IOM member state.
The International Migration Outlook is an annual publication by the IOM.
How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, the International Organization for Migration (IOM) published the alarming death toll in a report on its Missing Migrants Project, which has been investigating the disappearances of people fleeing conflict, persecution and poverty since 2014.
As per the report, drowning has been the biggest cause of recorded migrant deaths over the past 10 years.
Statement 1 is correct: IOM was established in 1951 as the Intergovernmental Committee for European Migration (ICEM) to help resettle people displaced by World War II and is headquartered in Geneva.
It was first known as the Provisional Intergovernmental Committee for the Movement of Migrants from Europe (PICMME).
The organisation follows a succession of name changes from PICMME to the Intergovernmental Committee for European Migration (ICEM) in 1952, to the Intergovernmental Committee for Migration (ICM) in 1980 to the International Organization for Migration (IOM) in 1989.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has 175 member states and India is its member.
India became an IOM Member State on 18 June 2008. Since then, IOM in India has implemented several projects in various areas, including counter-trafficking, labour migration and migrant assistance.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Since 2000, IOM has been producing its flagship World Migration Reports every two years.
The International Migration Outlook is an annual publication by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, the International Organization for Migration (IOM) published the alarming death toll in a report on its Missing Migrants Project, which has been investigating the disappearances of people fleeing conflict, persecution and poverty since 2014.
As per the report, drowning has been the biggest cause of recorded migrant deaths over the past 10 years.
Statement 1 is correct: IOM was established in 1951 as the Intergovernmental Committee for European Migration (ICEM) to help resettle people displaced by World War II and is headquartered in Geneva.
It was first known as the Provisional Intergovernmental Committee for the Movement of Migrants from Europe (PICMME).
The organisation follows a succession of name changes from PICMME to the Intergovernmental Committee for European Migration (ICEM) in 1952, to the Intergovernmental Committee for Migration (ICM) in 1980 to the International Organization for Migration (IOM) in 1989.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has 175 member states and India is its member.
India became an IOM Member State on 18 June 2008. Since then, IOM in India has implemented several projects in various areas, including counter-trafficking, labour migration and migrant assistance.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Since 2000, IOM has been producing its flagship World Migration Reports every two years.
The International Migration Outlook is an annual publication by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
The Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve includes Sunderban Tiger Reserve, Halliday Island and Lothian Island Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Major rivers flowing through the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve are Saptamukhi, Matla and Goasaba.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
The scarcity of freshwater is the burning issue in the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve. According to the observations of the experts, fresh groundwater may be found deeper than 250 metres and, in some cases, the groundwater is saline in nature in Sundarbans.
The environmental study report further found four million tonnes of microplastics are released into the Bay of Bengal and the Sundarbans each year from various rivers in Bangladesh and India.
Statement 1 is correct: Sundarban, the largest delta in the world, consists of 10,200 sq km of Mangrove Forest , spread over India (4200 sq km of Reserved Forest ) and Bangladesh (6000 sq km approx of Reserved Forest ) and is also the largest Mangrove Forest in the world.
Sundarban is the only mangrove forest in the world which is the home of Tiger. It is a Ramsar site and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
This Biosphere Reserve includes Sunderban Tiger Reserve, Sunderban National Park (core area), Halliday Island and Lothian Island Wildlife Sanctuaries with Sajnakhali Wildlife Sanctuary forming its buffer area.
Statement 2 is correct:
The Indian Sunderban is bounded on the west by river Muriganga and on the east by rivers Haribhanga and Raimangal.
Other major rivers flowing through this eco-system are Saptamukhi, Thakuran, Matla and Goasaba.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
The scarcity of freshwater is the burning issue in the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve. According to the observations of the experts, fresh groundwater may be found deeper than 250 metres and, in some cases, the groundwater is saline in nature in Sundarbans.
The environmental study report further found four million tonnes of microplastics are released into the Bay of Bengal and the Sundarbans each year from various rivers in Bangladesh and India.
Statement 1 is correct: Sundarban, the largest delta in the world, consists of 10,200 sq km of Mangrove Forest , spread over India (4200 sq km of Reserved Forest ) and Bangladesh (6000 sq km approx of Reserved Forest ) and is also the largest Mangrove Forest in the world.
Sundarban is the only mangrove forest in the world which is the home of Tiger. It is a Ramsar site and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
This Biosphere Reserve includes Sunderban Tiger Reserve, Sunderban National Park (core area), Halliday Island and Lothian Island Wildlife Sanctuaries with Sajnakhali Wildlife Sanctuary forming its buffer area.
Statement 2 is correct:
The Indian Sunderban is bounded on the west by river Muriganga and on the east by rivers Haribhanga and Raimangal.
Other major rivers flowing through this eco-system are Saptamukhi, Thakuran, Matla and Goasaba.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
With reference to the black carbon, consider the following statements:
The industrial sector contributes India’s highest total black carbon emissions.
It is a long-lived pollutant which contributes to global warming.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
According to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, India has installed a renewable energy capacity of over 180 GW by 2023 and is expected to meet its target of 500 GW by 2030. To achieve the target, there is an urgent need to curb black carbon emissions.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Black carbon is the dark, sooty material emitted alongside other pollutants when biomass and fossil fuels are not fully combusted. Most black carbon emissions in India arise from burning biomass, such as cow dung or straw, in traditional cookstoves.
According to a 2016 study, the residential sector contributes 47% of India’s total black carbon emissions. Industries contribute a further 22%, diesel vehicles 17%, open burning 12%, and other sources 2%.
Decarbonisation efforts in the industry and transport sectors in the past decade have yielded reductions in black carbon emissions, but the residential sector remains a challenge.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a short-lived pollutant and is one of the strongest contributors of global warming.
Black carbon contributes to global warming and poses severe risks. Studies have found a direct link between its exposure and a higher risk of heart disease, birth complications and premature death.
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
According to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, India has installed a renewable energy capacity of over 180 GW by 2023 and is expected to meet its target of 500 GW by 2030. To achieve the target, there is an urgent need to curb black carbon emissions.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Black carbon is the dark, sooty material emitted alongside other pollutants when biomass and fossil fuels are not fully combusted. Most black carbon emissions in India arise from burning biomass, such as cow dung or straw, in traditional cookstoves.
According to a 2016 study, the residential sector contributes 47% of India’s total black carbon emissions. Industries contribute a further 22%, diesel vehicles 17%, open burning 12%, and other sources 2%.
Decarbonisation efforts in the industry and transport sectors in the past decade have yielded reductions in black carbon emissions, but the residential sector remains a challenge.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a short-lived pollutant and is one of the strongest contributors of global warming.
Black carbon contributes to global warming and poses severe risks. Studies have found a direct link between its exposure and a higher risk of heart disease, birth complications and premature death.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
With reference to a political party to be considered as a national party, consider the following provisions:
Its candidates have secured at least 6% of total valid votes in at least 4 states (in latest Lok Sabha or Assembly elections) and the party has at least 4 MPs in the last Lok Sabha elections.
It has won at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 3 states.
It is recognised as a state party in at least three states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
Recently,a Communist Party of India (Marxist) leader reportedly warned that the party risks losing its famous symbol if it doesn’t perform well in the 2024 Lok Sabha Elections.
There are now only six national parties in India — the BJP, the Congress, the National People’s Party (NPP), Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M), Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP), and the latest addition, the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
A political party is considered a national party only if any of the following conditions are fulfilled:
Statement 1 is correct: The candidates set up by the party in any four or more States in the last general elections to the Lok Sabha or to a state assembly must have secured not less than 6% of the total valid votes polled in each of those States. The party must return at least four members to the House of the People in the general elections from any state of states.
Statement 2 is correct: In the last general elections to the Lok Sabha, the party must have won at least 2% of the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha, with any fraction exceeding half being counted as one. Additionally, the party’s candidates must have been elected to that House from not less than three States.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The party is recognised as a state party in at least four states.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
Recently,a Communist Party of India (Marxist) leader reportedly warned that the party risks losing its famous symbol if it doesn’t perform well in the 2024 Lok Sabha Elections.
There are now only six national parties in India — the BJP, the Congress, the National People’s Party (NPP), Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M), Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP), and the latest addition, the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
A political party is considered a national party only if any of the following conditions are fulfilled:
Statement 1 is correct: The candidates set up by the party in any four or more States in the last general elections to the Lok Sabha or to a state assembly must have secured not less than 6% of the total valid votes polled in each of those States. The party must return at least four members to the House of the People in the general elections from any state of states.
Statement 2 is correct: In the last general elections to the Lok Sabha, the party must have won at least 2% of the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha, with any fraction exceeding half being counted as one. Additionally, the party’s candidates must have been elected to that House from not less than three States.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The party is recognised as a state party in at least four states.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
In the Code of Criminal Procedure, the term ‘bail’ is defined as the temporary prison release of a person awaiting trial or an appeal.
In ‘Khilari vs. State of UP’ (2009), the Supreme Court ruled that the appellate court must record its reasons while granting bail.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, the Supreme Court of India ruled that imposing a bail condition that prevents a person from participating in political activities violates their fundamental rights under the Constitution.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘Bail’ has not been defined under Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). Only the terms ‘Bailable Offence’ and ‘Non-Bailable Offence’ have been defined under Section 2(a) of the CrPC.
Statement 2 is correct: Bail refers to the temporary prison release of a person awaiting trial or an appeal. It is secured by depositing security before a legal authority as a guarantee for his eventual presence in court.
In ‘Khilari vs. State of UP’ (2009), the Supreme Court observed that while exercising its discretion to release a person on bail, the court must ensure it acts “judiciously”.
It also ruled that the appellate court must record its reasons while granting bail.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, the Supreme Court of India ruled that imposing a bail condition that prevents a person from participating in political activities violates their fundamental rights under the Constitution.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘Bail’ has not been defined under Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). Only the terms ‘Bailable Offence’ and ‘Non-Bailable Offence’ have been defined under Section 2(a) of the CrPC.
Statement 2 is correct: Bail refers to the temporary prison release of a person awaiting trial or an appeal. It is secured by depositing security before a legal authority as a guarantee for his eventual presence in court.
In ‘Khilari vs. State of UP’ (2009), the Supreme Court observed that while exercising its discretion to release a person on bail, the court must ensure it acts “judiciously”.
It also ruled that the appellate court must record its reasons while granting bail.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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