Indian Polity

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Acts and Regulations under the Crown Rule (1858–1947)

The Government of India Act 1919, also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms came into force in 1921 with the sole purpose to ensure Indians of their representation in the Government. The Act divided the provincial subjects into two parts – transferred and reserved, this dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’.

Options 1, 3 and 4 are “Reserved Subjects”: The reserved list includes subjects such as Law and Order, Finance, Land Revenue, Administration of Justice, Police, irrigation etc. and the subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats. All-important subjects were kept in the reserved subjects of the Provincial Executive.

Option 2 is “Transferred Subjects”: The transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council and it included subjects such as education, health, Local Self-Government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc.

Other Important Provisions of Government of India Act (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) Act, 1919:

• Relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
• Introduced Bicameralism and Direct Elections in the country.
• It required 3 out of 6 members in the

Viceroy’s Executive Council to be Indian.

• It extended the principle of communal representation among the Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and
• Establishment of a Public Service
• Separated the provincial budgets from the Central budget.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Scheduled and Tribal Areas/Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution

Fifth Schedule:

• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. Article 244 (1) of the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by the President of India and are mentioned in the 5th schedule of the Constitution.
• Governors can make regulations for peace & good government of Scheduled Areas after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC).
• Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes and regulate the business of moneylending in relation to the scheduled tribes.
• The provisions regarding the administration and control of Scheduled and Tribal Areas of any state except the four states are mentioned under this schedule: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Writ Type and Scope

• Statement 1 is correct: The word Mandamus means “we command”. It directs activity and commands issued by the court to public officials asking them to perform. It is issued against any public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal, or government for the same purpose. Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body.
• Statement 2 is correct: Mandamus won’t be granted against private individuals and companies that have no public duty to perform. It cannot be issued against a legislature, commanding or preventing it to enact legislation.
• Statement 3 is correct: The meaning of the word Quo Warranto is “By what authority or warrant”. Quo Warranto is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

Ans: (b)

Sub-Theme: Procedure for the Amendment

Statement 1 is incorrect: Prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill amending the Constitution in India.

Statement 2 is correct: The 24th constitutional amendment made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 368 of the Indian constitution requires that the constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by a 2/3 majority (special majority). In case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon a joint session of parliament.

Procedure for the Amendment (Article 368):

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: People’s Representative/Speaker and Deputy Speaker

Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. While on the other hand the date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.

Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house, during such time he/she enjoys the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House. Statement 4 is incorrect: Regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker, there is no such parliamentary practice of moving motion by Speaker and duty seconded by the Prime Minister.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Exclusive powers of LS &RS

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses  of  Parliament,  the  emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
• Statement 2 is correct: No confidence Motion can only be initiated and passed in LS.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article 61, when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The impeachment resolution needs to be passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership in each house.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Council of Ministers

Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitution mentions the word ‘council of ministers’, however it doesn’t classify ministers into 4 categories. Generally, the Prime Minister and other Ministers are collectively known as the Council of Ministers.

Statement 2 is correct: As per 91st CAA, the total number of Central Council of Ministers/ State Council of Ministers including Prime Minister/Chief Minister should not be more than 15% of total strength of Lok Sabha. It stated that the number of ministers in the state legislature, including the CM, in a state shall not be less than 12. A member who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Contempt of Court

• Statement 1 is correct: Pursuant to the recommendations made by the H N Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed to bring transparency and more clarity in the concept of contempt of court.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court and the High Courts of India have been empowered with the power to penalise Contempt of Court under Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define Civil Contempt and/or Criminal Contempt. However, the expression has been defined by the Contempt of Court Act of 1971.
• Statement 4 is correct: Article 142 (2) of the Indian Constitution states that “subject to the provisions of any law made on this behalf by Parliament” the Supreme Court shall have all and every power to make any order on the punishment of any contempt of itself.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Functions of Judiciary

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Advocates Act, 1961 Advocates to be the only recognized class of persons entitled to practice law. Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as advocates and there’s no prohibition on their recognition as advocates.
• Statement 2  is  correct: To  recognize universities that offer a law degree as a prerequisite for becoming an advocate and inspect and visit universities, or to direct the State Bar Councils to do so are one of the functions of BCI.

Ans: d 

Sub-Theme: Attorney General

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he is a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. While Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitor General of India have no such rights or privilege.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution and also, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president and conventionally, he resigns when CoM resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Provisions of the Anti-Defection Law

• Statement 1 is incorrect: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House.
• Statement 2 is correct: The law does not specify any time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea under the Tenth Schedule.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Basic

The State refers to a political institution that represents a sovereign people organised under one independent government within a definite territory and subject to no outside control. Thus, a community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organised government.

Ans: d

The doctrine of Separation of Powers entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. It thus helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a democracy. In the Directive Principles of State Policy, Article 50 mentions separation of judiciary from the executive.

Additional Information:

• Committed Judiciary: It means a judiciary committed to the policies of the government or ruling party; thus, it can’t protect the liberty of all people.
• Centralization of Power: Liberal- democratic theory   assumes   that decentralization promotes democratic participation, especially local self- government.
  • Elected Government: Only having an elected government doesn’t safeguard liberty in liberal democracy. g., Pakistan.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Right outside FR/Legal

• • Earlier, the Indian Constitution recognized the ‘Right to Property’ as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. Later, Right to Property as a fundamental right was abolished by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 and made it a legal right under Article 300-A.
  • Article 300-A of the Constitutions states that “No person shall be deprived of his property save by Authority of Law”.
  • Thus, Right to Property in India is a legal right available to any person.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Forms of Government

The Indian Constitution adopts the federal system of Government, but with more tilt towards a unitary system of government. So, every state government does not have power of its own. Thus, it is considered as a quasi-federal system. The features of a federation are:

• Two Government, division of powers,
• Written Constitution,
• Supremacy of Constitution,
• Rigidity of Constitution,
• Independent Judiciary and 
• Bicameralism

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Acquisition of Citizenship

Statement  1  is  correct: The Indian Constitution has the provision for single citizenship only, i.e., the Indian citizenship. India’s citizens only owe allegiance to the Indian Union. Additionally, the citizenship of an Indian citizen immediately expires when he or she voluntarily obtains the citizenship of another nation. In India, only one domicile is permitted. A single State or UT may only issue a Domicile Certificate.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, the Head of the State is the President and as per the Indian constitution both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President. Thus, a naturalized citizen can also become the Head of the State in India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: A foreigner who has previously received Indian citizenship, can be deprived of his citizenship. Indian citizenship can be terminated by the Central government, if:
• obtained the citizenship by
• shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India
• unlawfully exchanged goods or information with the enemy while at war.
• two years of imprisonment in any country within five years of registration or
• been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Socialist Principles

Option (b) is correct: Part IV of the Constitution of India, spanning article 36 to 51, deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 39 of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) clearly says that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Additional Information:

Right to Equality: Articles 14 to 18 deals with ‘Right to Equality’ –

• • Equality before Law (Article 14)
  • Prohibition of discrimination based on grounds of religion, race, caste etc. (Article 15)
  • Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16)
  • Abolition of Untouchability (Article 17)
  • Abolition of titles (Article 18)

Right to Freedom: Article 19 – 21 deals with ‘Right to Freedom’ – Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: (Article 19)

• Speech and Expression
• Assembly
• Association
• Movement
• Residence
• Profession
  • Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
  • Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
  • Concept of Welfare: It itself is a part of

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble

• The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is a brief introductory statement that reflects the hopes and aspirations of the people.
• The ideals behind the Preamble to Indian Constitution is based on ‘Objective Resolution’ which were drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22,
• The original Preamble, adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, declared India a “Sovereign Democratic Republic”. Later, it was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), and added three new words– “Socialist, Secular and Integrity”.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Right to Privacy

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of life and personal liberty. In the KS Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme Court held that privacy is a natural right that inheres in all natural persons, and that the right may be restricted only by state action that passes each of the three tests:

• Such state action must have a legislative
• It must be pursuing a legitimate state purpose; and
• It must be proportionate.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Rule of Law

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates Article 14 of the constitution.

The Article 14 of the Indian Constitution denotes that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’.

Rule of Law:

• The concept of ‘equality before law’ as enshrined in Article 14 of Indian Constitution is taken from the concept of ‘Rule of Law’ propounded by V. Dicey.
• Rule of law is a legal principle that states that a country should be ruled by the law rather than by the arbitrary actions of particular government officials.
• Rule of law is part of the basic structure of the constitution.

The ‘Rule of Law’ has 3 fundamental principles:

• Absence of arbitrary power
• Equality before law
• Primacy of individual rights

From the above concept we came to know that ‘equality before law’ under Article 14 connotes the absence of arbitrary power with the authorities. Therefore, when a legislation confers uncontrolled discretionary powers on any authority, it tends to violate Article 14 of the constitution.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: System of Government

The Constitutional Government is defined by the existence of a Constitution The idea behind constitutionalism is to place restrictions on the authority of state so that it does not become autocratic and also to protect the interest of individual liberty. In India the powers of the government are limited by means of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part III of the Indian Constitution, which are essentially given to us against the state actions.

Ans: (c)

Sub-Theme: System of Government

Statement 1 is correct: Indian Parliamentary system is based on constitutional supremacy, hence power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. Whereas the British Model is based on Parliamentary sovereignty. So, as regards the legislation, the British Parliament is supreme.

Statement 2 is correct: According to the Constitution, Parliament and the state legislatures in India have the power to make laws within their respective jurisdictions. This power is not absolute in nature. The Constitution vests in the judiciary, the power to adjudicate upon the constitutional validity of all laws.

Additional Information:

Ans: b       

Sub-Theme: People’s Representation

This Question was cancelled by UPSC. Probable Solution: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The amendment of RPA in 1996 restricted the number of seats one candidate could contest in one election to two constituencies. And whenever they have won more than one, the candidates have retained only one, forcing bypolls in the rest.
• Statement 2 is correct: In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such provision. If a candidate is contesting from more than one constituency, he has to lodge a separate return of election expenses for every election which he has contested. In every case, the Election Commission of India (ECI) bears the cost of elections/bye-elections in all the constituencies in Lok Sabha and assembly elections as well.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Constitutional Provisions Pertaining to Supreme Court/Jurisdiction and Powers of High Court

• Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, can request a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a retired judge of a high court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. Such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine. He will also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of the Supreme Court.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: High Court does not has power to review and correct its own judgement. Thus, it is bound by its previous decision.

Ans: d         

Sub-Theme: National Commission for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes & Backward Classes

Option (d) is correct: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. The ministry deals with forest and livelihood objectives at the national level.

Ans: b        

Statement 1 is incorrect: In the report ‘Reorganisation of the Machinery of Central Government’ (1950) Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, suggested the grouping of ministries, improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the Organisation and Method (O&M) Division. It nowhere mentions that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. Moreover, it was the 1st ARC that suggested a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.

 Statement 2 is correct: In 1970, on the basis of the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission, the Department of Personnel was set up under the charge of Cabinet Secretariat. In 1985, it was placed under the overall charge of the Prime Minister assisted by a Minister of State.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Major Political Theories

The common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is the final goal of stateless and classless society. But means to achieve these final goals differ under Gandhism and Marxism. A stateless society refers to a society that lacks formal institutions of government.

Additional Information:

• Karl Marx: State is an instrument of oppression and an organ of the bourgeoisie that only works for maintaining class dominance. Therefore, he strives for class struggle and revolution which will ultimately result in a stateless society.
• Mahatma Gandhi: According to Gandhiji, even minimal state will require to use This was against non-violence philosophy. Instead, Gandhiji was in favour of strengthening of local self-governments.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Basic Understanding of Permanent Executive

Bureaucracy Bureaucracy is the executive arm of the government, where the elected government employs competent state officials to run after state matters. They are selected by the government through the merit-based process. The major objective of bureaucracy in India has not been Parliamentary democracy’s expansion but rather the implementation of the decisions taken by the executive.

Parliamentary democracy results often in change at the helm of executive, the static and permanent bureaucracy provides continuity of policies and execution rather than political stability.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Basic Structure of Indian Constitution Statement 1 is incorrect: Basic Structure encompasses basic  and  core  values  like

federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy which forms bedrock of the Indian Constitution.

• Basic Structure cannot be amended by parliament under Art 368.
• Basic Structure Doctrine is a Judicially innovative doctrine, and it was neither defined under Constitution nor it was defined by the Supreme Court or any other court.
• Various judgments of the Supreme Court form the bedrock of Basic Structure Doctrine like: Kesavananda Bharati Case (24 April 1973) and IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 13 of the Indian Constitution though gives the power of judicial review but the word ‘judicial review‘ is nowhere mentioned. The Union or the States shall not make any law that takes away or abridges any of the fundamental rights, and any law made in contravention of the aforementioned mandate shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.

Ans: (d)

Sub-Theme: Preamble as Part of the Constitution

The question as to whether the Preamble is a part of the Constitution leads to three landmark SC judgement and those are –

In the Berubari Union Case (1960):

• The Preamble explains the overall rationale behind several provisions of the
• If terms used in articles are ambiguous, some assistance of the preamble could be taken for interpretation.
• SC ruled that Preamble is not a part of the

Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973):

• The Preamble is a part of the LIC of India Case (1995):

• SC again held that the preamble is an integral part of the Constitution, and it can also be amended subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Right to Equality

Articles 14 to 18 deals with ‘Right to Equality’–

• Equality before Law (Article 14)
• Prohibition of  discrimination  based on grounds of religion, race, caste etc. (Article 15)
• Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16)
• Abolition of Untouchability (Article 17)
• Abolition of titles (Article 18)

Hence, Protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination is a Fundamental Right under Right to Equality.

Additional Information:

• Article 23 & 24 deals with the ‘Right Against Exploitation’ –
  • Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23)
  • Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc. (Article 24)
• Article 19 – 21 deals with ‘Right to Freedom’ –
• Article 19: Protection of six rights regarding freedom of:
  • Speech and Expression
  • Assembly
  • Association
  • Movement
  • residence &
  • Profession
• Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
• Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
• Article 32 deals with the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’.

Ans: (d)

Sub-Theme: Universal Declaration of Human Rights

• Statement 1 is correct: The objectives of Preamble such as Justice (social, economic, and political), Equality and Liberty also reflect the principles of UDHR. The Article 3 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) (1948) says that “Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.”
• Statement 2 is correct: DPSPs are the principles that aim at providing social and economic justice and set the path towards the welfare state. These DPSP act as an obligation on state and are in consonance with human rights, which has a resemblance with UDHR Article 22. The article 22 of UDHR 1948 says that “Everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security.”
• Statement 3 is correct: Fundamental duties (Article 51A) are basically civic and moral obligations of all citizens of India. As of now, there are 11 fundamental duties in India, which are to provide opportunities for education to the child between the age of 6 and 14 years by the parents or guardian.

Additional Information:

UDHR Article 26:

• • Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages.

UDHR Article 27:

• • Everyone has the right freely to participate in the cultural life of the community, to enjoy the arts and to share in scientific advancement and its benefits.
  • Everyone has the right to the protection of the moral and material interests resulting from any scientific, literary or artistic production of which he is the author.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution.
• The DPSPs have been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland. It constitutes a comprehensive socio economic and political programme for a modern democratic State. DPSP embodies the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’.
• Welfare state refers to a concept of government in which the state plays a key role in the economic and social well-being of its citizens.
• Article 38 (1): The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles The Provisions contained in the Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive

Principles of State Policy (DPSP). Under Part IV, Articles 36 to 51 relates to DPSP.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which is non-justiciable in nature. DPSPs were made non-justiciable on the recommendations of the Tej Bahadur Committee Report.
• Statement 2 is correct: The DPSPs are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
• Statement 3 is correct: The ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters.

Ans: b 

Sub-Theme: Liberal-Intellectual Principles

• • Part IV of the Constitution of India, spanning article 36 to 51, deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • In the chapter on the Directive Principles of State Policy, Article 50 mentions separation of judiciary from the
  • This article comes under the Liberal- Intellectual Principles, which represent the ideology of liberalism.
  • The doctrine of Separation of powers entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different organs.
  • This distinction prevents any branch of the government from concentrating too much authority. As a result, it supports preserving the liberties and rights of the populace in

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Application part of DPSPs Statement 1 is correct: Free legal services are available to the groups of society that are

listed under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, they are:

• Women and children
• Members of SC/ST
• Industrial workmen
• Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake industrial disaster
• Disabled persons
• Persons in custody
• Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹1 lakh or may be prescribed by the State Government
• Beggars or those who have fallen victim to human trafficking.
• Statement 2 is correct: Limit for Transgender Rs. 2,00,000.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Though there is a provision for free aid to members of SC and ST community, the Legal Services Authority does not mention Other Backward Classes (OBC) while providing free legal services.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The provision of free legal services to Senior Citizens is dependent on the rules framed by the respective state governments who can prescribe income limits. As a result, not all elderly people qualify for free legal assistance.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: System of Government

A parliamentary system of government is one in which the executive is accountable to the electorate through a legislature which in turn is periodically elected by the electorate. This responsibility means that the executive stays in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. India has a parliamentary system of government. The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers (CoM) are responsible to the Lok Sabha. This is called Collective Responsibility. Additional Information:

• Parliamentary system functions irrespective of whether all parties have representation in the government.
• The government in the Parliamentary system is not directly elected by the people but indirectly through their representative in Parliament. Therefore, the instrument to remove the government through public vote is not available in the parliamentary
• It goes against the fundamental principle of parliamentary democracy which requires an executive responsible to the legislature.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: System of Government

The Constitutional Government is defined by the existence of a Constitution The idea behind constitutionalism is to place restrictions on the authority of state so that it does not become autocratic and also to protect the interest of individual liberty. In India the powers of the government are limited by means of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part III of the Indian Constitution, which are essentially given to us against the state actions.

Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect: A constitutional government may not have a legislature, could be a bi-party government and need not be a popular government and can instead be a monarchy.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: People’s Representative

Statement 1 is incorrect:  The Indian Constitution lays down the following four qualifications for a person to be chosen as a member of the state legislature, such as –

• He must be a citizen of
• He must take an oath or affirmation before the person the Election Commission has designated for this purpose. In his oath or affirmation, he swears.
• To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
• To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
• He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
• He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Section 8 of RPA, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release not permanently disqualified.

Ans: (c)

Sub-Theme: Sessions of Parliament

• Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 85(1), the Constitution gives the power to the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet. The gap between two sessions must not exceed 6 months.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year not by Constitution.
• Statement 3 is correct: There is no provision of the minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Rajya Sabha

The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers with Lok Sabha in matters like –

• The impeachment of the President,
• Removal of the vice-president,
• Constitutional amendments, and
• Removal of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Additional Information:

• Rajya Sabha enjoys exclusive powers in the matter of creating new All India Services.
• In the matter of removal of government, Rajya Sabha has unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers is responsible only to Lok Sabha and not to the Rajya Sabha. Thus, a no-confidence motion cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
• Rajya Sabha has less or no powers in the matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Annual Financial Statement

Fiscal   Responsibility   and   Budget

• Management (FRBM) Act, 2003: The Macro- Economic Framework Statement, presented to Parliament as per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. The Framework Statement includes assessments of the GDP growth rate, Central Government fiscal balance, and the economy’s external sector balance.

Ans: d        

Sub-Theme: MPLADS

• Statement 1 is correct: The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their Constituencies.
• Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The released funds under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable i.e., if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year.
• Statement 4 is correct: The district authority should visit and inspect at least 10% of the works every year. It is also expected to involve the MPs in such activities.

Ans: d

Option (d) is correct: The term social capital was popularised by Robert As per OECD, it can be defined as “networks together with shared norms, values and understandings that facilitate co-operation within or among groups”. It consists of trust, mutual understanding, shared values and behaviour that bind together the members of a community and make cooperative action possible. Such interaction enables people to build communities, to commit themselves to each other, and to knit the social fabric.

Option (a) is incorrect: The proportion of literates in the population and the size of population in the working age group are the examples of human capital.

Option (b) is incorrect: The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines is the example of physical capital.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution

Fifth Schedule:

• Deals with the provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Article 244 (1) of the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by the President of India and are mentioned in the 5th schedule of the Constitution.
• In the Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997) judgment the Supreme Court held that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule.
• Under the fifth Schedule, the Governors can make regulations for peace & good government of Scheduled Areas after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC).
• Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes and regulate the business of moneylending in relation to the scheduled tribes.

Additional Information:

Third Schedule: The third schedule of Indian Constitution is related with the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for – The Union and the State ministers, The candidates for election to the Parliament and State Legislature, Members of the Parliament and State Legislature, The judges of the SC and HC, CAG.

Ninth Schedule: Provisions as to validation of certain Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. Twelfth Schedule: This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992 and it specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution

Ninth Schedule:

• The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by  the  1st  Amendment(1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. At this time, Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India. He remained in the office from the year 1947 to 1964.

• This schedule deals with the provisions as to validation of certain Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters.

Additional Information:

Prime Ministership of the following leaders are as follows:

• Lal Bahadur Shastri: 1964 – 1966
• Indira Gandhi: 1966 – 1971 and 1980 – 1984
• Morarji Desai: 1977 – 1979

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble

“Opportunity to develop oneself fully” covers liberty fully, therefore, one may surmise that the purpose of ensuring ‘liberty’ is that one has no obstacles or hindrances to realise one’s full potential.

Additional Information:

• “Protection against the tyranny of political rulers” is a partial definition and has a connotation more towards fundamental rights rather than liberty.
• “Absence of restraint” only covers part of the definition of liberty.
• Liberty does not mean ‘licence’ to do whatever one likes; it is to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Right to Privacy

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of Life and Personal Liberty. This very article safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice. In the famous Hadiya Case (2017), the Supreme Court held that, “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution”.

Additional Information:

• Article 19: This article is related to the protection of six rights regarding freedom of:
  • Speech and expression
  • Assembly
  • Association
  • Movement
  • Residence
  • Profession
• Article 25: This article deals with the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
• Article 29: This article is related to the protection of language, script and culture of minorities.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Important and Major Constitutional Amendments

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 44th amendment  of  the  Indian  Constitution was significant as it removed partially the distortions that were introduced into the Constitution by 42nd Amendment, but it had no proposal of an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. The 39th Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted on 10 August 1975, placed the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts. It was passed during the Emergency of 1975–1977.

Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act would have established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). But, in 2015, a five judge Constitution Bench of SC by 4:1 majority upheld the collegium system and struck down the NJAC as unconstitutional.

In this regard, Justice Khehar stated that the proposed NJAC violated the judiciary’s independence because the expectation from the judiciary is to protect the rights of the citizens of this country, and that this expectation can only be ensured by maintaining absolute isolation and independence from the other organs of government.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Final Interpreter and Guardian of the Constitution

Statement 1 is incorrect: Though the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the power of HC in judicial review and debarred the HC from considering the constitutional validity of any central law.

However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1978 restored the original position of the HC and moreover now the HC is considered as the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory, thus they shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India has conferred a very extensive jurisdiction and vast powers on the Supreme Court. As the SC is the final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution and also the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens.

Moreover, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), SC laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. Therefore, any constitutional amendment that is ultra vires or goes against the ‘basic structure’ of the Indian Constitution can be nullified by the SC.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Qualification and Disqualification of Parliament

Statement 1 is correct: There is no bar on how many offices can be exempted from the purview of the law. In the past the Supreme Court also held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid.

Statement 2 is correct: Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended five times to expand the exempted list.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Though the expression ‘office of profit’ is mentioned in the Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, however, it has neither been ‘defined’ in the Indian Constitution nor in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.

Ans: a   

Sub-Theme: Parliamentary Committees

• Parliamentary Committee: The purpose of the parliamentary committees is to study and address a wide range of issues that the legislature cannot directly address owing to their magnitude. They also keep an eye on how the executive branch is operating. There are two types of parliamentary committees: permanent or standing committees and ad hoc committees.
• Department Related Standing Committee: They are elected or appointed periodically, and they work on a continuous basis to secure more accountability of the Executive to the Parliament, particularly financial accountability. The latter are created on an ad hoc basis as the need arises and they are dissolved after they complete the task assigned to them.
• Ad hoc committees: These committees are created on an ad hoc basis as the need arises and they are dissolved after they complete the task assigned to them.
• Both the  Parliamentary  committees are responsible to review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Removal of Judges

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a removal motion signed by 100 members (Lok Sabha) or 50 members (Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ Chairman. The speaker has the discretion to accept or reject the motion.
• Statement is 2 incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define and gives details of the expression ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India which are the ground for the impeachment of the Judges.
• Statement 3 is correct: The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India is governed by the Judges Enquiry Act (1968).
• Statement 4 is correct: If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires that the motion be passed by a ‘special majority’ i.e. majority of the total membership of the House and majority of not less than two thirds members present and voting.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Jurisdiction and Powers of Supreme Court

Article 142 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court and orders as to discovery, etc. The SC in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. This is often termed as ‘judicial activism’. Also in the Union Carbide Case, 1989, the Supreme Court while overriding the laws made by the Parliament invoked Article 142 to provide relief awarding the compensation to victims affected in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy.

Additional Information:

• The ECI has the power to administer the election to Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country. The decision of the election commissions can be challenged by the petitions in the High Court and Supreme
• Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a financial emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened but the proclamation should be approved by the Parliament through a simple majority within two months.
• According to Article 196 the state legislature can make laws on State List as well as on Concurrent List.

Ans: a      

Sub-Theme: Legislative Powers of Governor

Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) states that, through the legislative powers of the Governor, he can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The State legislature is a constitutional body and derives its power from the Constitution itself and as per Article

208 (1) of the Constitution, a house of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. This implies that the state legislature does not follow Lok Sabha rules, no

such provision exists.

Ans: c        

Sub-Theme: Centre’s Control Over State Legislation

• 1st ARC Recommendation (1966): The first ARC recommended the appointment of persons having long experience in public life and administration and non-partisan attitude as governors.
• Rajamannar Committee (1969): The Rajamannar Committee recommended the provision that the state ministry holds office during the pleasure of the governor should be omitted.
• Sarkaria Commission (1983): The “Sarkaria Commission” recommended that the Governor should be a distinguished outsider without intense political links, that he should not have recently participated in politics, and that he should not be a member of the ruling party.
• National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000): The committee recommended that the president should appoint the governor of a state only after consultation with the chief minister of that state.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble

• Where there is no Law, there is no For liberty is to be free from restraint and violence from others, which cannot be where there is no law.
• If there are no laws, there is no liberty. Liberty:

Liberty can be seen from two perspectives– negative and positive.

• Negative liberty: It is concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference and not with the conditions in society, i.e. absence of obstacles, barriers or constraints.
• Positive liberty: Recognizes that one can be free only in society and not outside it, therefore it is the possibility of acting or the fact of acting in such a way as to take control of one’s life and realise one’s fundamental Safeguards of Liberty:
• Declaration of rights of the individuals: It is an important safeguard of liberty. In this manner, the government can be prevented from interfering with citizens’ liberty.
• The independent and impartial judiciary is aptly referred to as the watchdog of liberty.
• Decentralisation of powers: History is witness to the fact that concentration of power has very often led to despotism.
• Separation of powers, i.e., the executive, the legislature and the judiciary being separate, is a great ally of liberty. Montesquieu said, “Power should be a check on power.”
• Rule of law or equality in the eyes of the law is also an important safeguard of This is the bulwark against discrimination based on caste, class, colour, creed, etc.

Law:

• It works as the aggregate of legislation, judicial precedents, and accepted legal principles; the body of authoritative grounds of judicial and administrative action; esp., the body of rules, standards, and principles that the courts of a particular jurisdiction apply in deciding controversies brought before them.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: State Emergency/ President’s Rule

• The proclamation of the President’s Rule is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
• When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister and parliament passes the state bills and budgets.
• Ground for declaration of President’s Rule in a State:
  • Article 356: The president has the authority to declare if he is satisfied that the state government cannot function in accordance with the Constitution’s provisions. (The President can act on the report of the governor or otherwise).
  • Article 365: If a state fails to give effect or comply with any direction from the Centre, then it is lawful for the president to impose president’s rule.

Additional Information:

• Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not necessarily the consequence of
• When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister and parliament passes the state bills and budgets.
• In case of President’s Rule or State Emergency there is no effect on Fundamental Rights like Article 19.
• According to the 44th Constitutional Amendment only when National Emergency is declared on the grounds of “war or external aggression” & not the ground of “armed rebellion” the Fundamental Rights like Article 19 gets suspended with effect of Article 358.
• The Parliament passes the state legislative bills and the state budget during President’s

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Election of President

• Statement 1 is correct: The President of India is elected indirectly by the Electoral College and it is conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
  • Elected members of the two Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the States
  • States includes national capital territory of Delhi and the Union territory of
  • Do not participate: Nominated members of both the houses of the parliament & of state legislative assemblies and all the members of legislative councils of states.
  • Value of Vote: The value of votes of MLAs would differ from State to State as it is based on population criterion and population of each state has a different value.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The value of vote of each MP is the same whether it is Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. There shall be uniformity in the scale of representation of the different states at the election of the President as follows:
  • Value of vote of an MLA of a state: (Population of state/Total number of elected members of state legislative assembly) * 100
  • Value of vote of an MP: (Total value of votes of MLA’s of all states/Total number of elected members parliament) * 100

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Leader of Opposition

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Communist Party of India (CPI) was the single largest opposition party in the First general Election. CPI won in 16 seats. The Indian National Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning 364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the total votes polled. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first democratically elected PM of the country.
• Statement 2 is correct: In 1969, an official leader of the opposition was recognized for the first time. However, it was given statutory recognition in 1977.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In order to receive the status of opposition party and Consequent Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure 10% of the total strength of the House i.e., 55 seats in the Lok Sabha.”]

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Parliamentary Committees

Committee on Subordinate Legislation:

• Composition: 15 members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker. A Minister is not nominated to this
• Functions: Scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Money Bill

Money Bill (Article 110):

• Matter concerned with financial matters like the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
• Can be introduced Only in Lok
• Introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
• Cannot be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha should return the bill with or without recommendation Lok Sabha may accept or reject recommendation.
• Rajya Sabha can keep it for a maximum period of 14 days.
• Requires the certification of the
• Rajya Sabha has limited power with respect to money bills so no chance of any
• The President can reject or approve but cannot return it to parliament for

Ans: a       

Sub-Theme: Speaker & Deputy Speaker of Assembly

• Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly vacates his office in three cases: 1. If he ceases to be a member of the assembly; 2. Speaker Resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and vice versa and 3. Removed by the resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the assembly.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 179 provided that, whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Judicial Review

• Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule and Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
  • A law receives protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) once it is passed and inserted into the Ninth Schedule and is thus exempt from judicial review.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The mandate of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but according to the Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973, any violation with the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is open to challenge. Laws after 24 April 1973 are open for judicial review by courts.
  • IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007: the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Rule of Law

• Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Rule of law: The concept of ‘equality before law’ as enshrined in Article 14 of Indian Constitution is taken from the concept of ‘Rule of Law’ propounded by A.V. Dicey.
• Rule of law is a legal principle that states that a country should be ruled by the law rather than by the arbitrary actions of particular government officials.
• The ‘Rule of Law’ has 3 fundamental principles:
  • Absence of arbitrary power
  • Equality before law
  • Primacy of individual rights
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The government is responsible/accountable to the people and not the vice versa.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Right to Privacy

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of life and personal liberty. In the KS Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme Court held that privacy is a natural right that inheres in all natural persons, and that the right may be restricted only by state action that passes each of the three tests:

• Such state action must have a legislative
• It must be pursuing a legitimate state purpose; and
• It must be proportionate.

Additional Information:

• Article 14 (Right to Equality): the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• Right to Equality = Equality before Law + Equal Protection of laws.
• The concept of ‘equality before law’ as enshrined in Article 14 of Indian Constitution is taken from the concept of ‘Rule of Law’ propounded by V. Dicey.
• Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability): This Article forbids untouchability (not defined in Constitution or in the act) in any

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Universal Adult Franchise

Constitutional Right:

• While framing the Indian Constitution the framers and makers of our Constitution took the decision to guarantee every adult Indian citizen to franchise their vote e., the Right to Vote.
• In India, the Right to Vote is provided both by the Indian Constitution and the Representation of People’s Act, 1951.
• Article 326: ensures that every individual above the age of 18 has the right to vote.
• Section 62 of the Representation of Peoples Act (RoPA), 1951: the right to vote will be available to every person on the electoral roll of that constituency.
• 61st Constitutional Amendment: lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Forms of Government

Parliamentary System:

• The Parliamentary System is also referred to as Cabinet Government. It establishes a system of collective responsibility between the executive and the legislative.
• Parliamentary system is part of the basic structure of the
• The characteristics of India’s parliamentary system are:
  • Presence of nominal and real executives i.e., President and Prime minister respectively,
  • Majority party rule,
  • Collective responsibility (Swim or Sink together) of the executive to the legislature,
  • Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
  • Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
  • Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or State Assembly).
• It is through these powers that the Parliament enforces the responsibility of the executive to itself and to the people in the ultimate analysis.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Forms of Government

• Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct: The Indian Constitution adopts the federal system of Government, but with more tilt towards a unitary system of government. So, every state government does not have power of its own. Thus, it is considered as a quasi-federal system.
• The features of a federation are:
  • Two Government,
  • Division of powers,
  • Written Constitution,
  • Supremacy of Constitution,
  • Rigidity of Constitution,
  • Independent judiciary,
  • Bicameralism
• Option (d) is incorrect: The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: One, unlike the American Federation (“Indestructible union of indestructible states”), the Indian Federation (“Indestructible union of destructible states”) is not the outcome of an agreement among the states; and two, the states are not permitted to secede the
• Due to its invincibility, the federation is a Union. The country is a union that cannot be broken, although states can be split up and reorganised by changing their borders. State names and borders may be changed by the central government without their consent. B. R. Ambedkar described India as an “indestructible Union of destructible states” for this reason.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Forms of Government

Parliamentary System:

• The Parliamentary system is also known as the Cabinet Government/Responsible government/Westminster model of government. It provides for collective responsibility of the executive to the
• The features of parliamentary government in India are:
  • Presence of nominal and real executives.
  • Majority party rule,
  • Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
  • Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
  • Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
  • Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble

Liberty as mentioned in the Preamble:

• This ideal of ‘liberty’ in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the French revolution.
• It means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals and at the same time, it provides opportunities for the development of individuals.
• The preamble to the Indian Constitution assures to all citizens-
  • liberty of thought,
  • liberty of expression, liberty of belief, liberty of faith and worship Justice as mentioned in the Preamble:
• The ideal of justice in the Indian Constitution embraces three distinct forms- social, economical and political:
  • Social Justice: the equal treatment of all citizens without any social discrimination.
  • Economic Justice: It calls for the non- discrimination between people on the basis of economic factors.
  • Political justice: It calls for equal access to political office, equal political rights, and equal voice in the government for all citizens.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Significance of the Preamble

Option (a) is correct: The Preamble:

• Though India followed the practice of the American Constitution, the preamble to the Indian Constitution embodies the basic philosophy and the fundamental values on which our constitution is based.
• It is not only the outcome of the grand and noble vision of the Constituent Assembly, but also the reflection of the dreams and aspirations of the founding fathers of the
• In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court opined that the Preamble is “a key to the minds of the makers of the ”

Option (b) is incorrect: Fundamental Rights:

• The framers and makers of the Constitution derived inspiration of ‘fundamental rights’ from the Constitution of the USA (Bill of Rights) and also from the Motilal Nehru committee Report 1928. It was meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy.

Option (c) is incorrect: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

• It resembles the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in GoI Act 1935. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic

Option (d) is incorrect: Fundamental Duties:

• Inspired from the erstwhile USSR, the Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Right against Exploitation

Statement 1 is correct: As under article 23 (Right Against Exploitation) of the constitution, the expression ‘traffic in human beings’ includes: Selling and buying of men, women and children like goods, Immoral traffic in women and children, including prostitution, Devadasis, Slavery.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Abolition of Untouchability is provided in the constitution of India, but it comes under Right to Equality, under article 17.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Cultural and Educational Rights (under articles 29 and 30) cover protection of interests of minorities; they don’t come under Rights Against Exploitation.

Statement 4 is correct: Article 24 (Right Against Exploitation) ensures prohibition of employment of children in factories etc. The Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005 was enacted to provide for the establishment of a National Commission and State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights and Children’s Courts for providing speedy trial of offences against children or of violation of child rights.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Correlation between Rights and Duties

• In the context of India, Rights are correlative with duties, considering the Indian political set up.
• In a constitutional democracy (such as India), the State provides rights and lays down duties for the citizenry, so that society can peacefully However, sometimes the State imposes such duties on its citizens that infringes the rights of the marginalised sections of society.
• Rights and duties have an organic relationship. If others do not carry out their duties, one cannot enjoy a right.
• For Example: One’s right to life implies that others should give protection and security to the former’s Similarly, One cannot enjoy their Right to a clean environment if others do not perform their duty of protecting and conserving the environment.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Right to Equality

Equality in the society can be maintained by ending the formal system of inequality and ensuring absence of privileges. The lack of any special privileges for any individual is a concept related to Equality Before Law (which is an American Concept and denotes positive notion). This concept entails equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts, and no one is above the law, regardless of their status (rich or poor, high or low, official or not).

Additional Information:

• Absence of Restraint does not necessarily imply equality in society as restraining the actions of the society curtails the liberty of the individual.
• Absence of Competition in society may result in monopoly, which would not imply equality, rather inequality in the society.
• Absence of ideology does not imply equality in society. Ideology is a set of principles or beliefs of a group/institution in the society.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Rights of Citizen

Option (a) is incorrect: Rights are claimed by the citizens against the state and not the vice versa.

Option (b) is incorrect: Rights are not privileges either, they are one of the quintessential requirements for the formation of a democratic state. Thus, the constitution has no concept of special privileges which will create inequality in the society.

Option (c) is correct: The philosophy of rights is grounded in preventing the exploitation of the citizen by the state. It inherently belongs to the citizens. So, essentially it is the claim of an individual against the state.

Option (d) is incorrect: As per Article 18, except for military and academic distinctions, no other citizens have titular privileges. Hence, Rights are not the privileges of a few citizens as they are equally available to all.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Amendments to Constitution

• 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list, and they are –
  • Article 39: To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
  • Article 39 A: To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
  • Article 43 A: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
  • Article 48 A: To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles

• DPSP: The directive principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to achieve certain ends by their actions. Directive Principles of State Policy does not impose any limitations on any organ of the State. It is a guideline that the government of the day can use for the welfare of the socially and economically backward classes while framing any rules.
• Fundamental Rights: It is the fundamental rights that constitute limitations upon state action (whether legislative or executive).

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Basics of Fundamental Duties

Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are enumerated in Part IV-A and consists of single Article 51A with 11 sub-articles. These duties should guide the legislative and executive actions of elected or non-elected institutions and organisations of the citizens including the municipal bodies. But no legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. These duties are thus non-enforceable and non- justiciable in nature.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The fundamental Duties are not correlative of the legal duties. Parliament may provide legislation for the imposition of penalty or punishment for non- observance or infringement of duties.

NOTE: Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only & not to foreigners.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: State Emergency/President’s Rule

Statement 1 is correct: The proclamation of the President’s Rule is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’. As per article 356 of the Constitution of India, the president has the authority to declare if he is satisfied that the state government cannot function in accordance with the Constitution’s provisions. (The President can act on the report of the governor or otherwise). But the ground for Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not necessarily the consequence of proclamation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.

Statement 3 is correct: There is no mention of Dissolution of the local bodies during the proclamation of President’s Rule.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Basic Idea of Democracy (Conceptual)

The basic idea of democracy is the desire, approval and participation of people. A democratic government is created, and its operations are decided by the will of the people. It is the decision of people that creates a democratic government and decides about its functioning. Therefore, democracy requires voters’ decision making – hence, intelligence and character are called in.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Qualification of Lok Sabha

There are some qualification criteria mentioned in the Indian Constitution for filing the nomination for Lok Sabha election and those are –

1. The candidate must be a citizen of
2. The age of the candidate should not less than 25 years of age
3. The candidate must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: People’s Representative/Speaker and Deputy Speaker

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian constitution adopts the first-past-the-post (FPTP) system of elections where the majority of votes is sufficient to get elected, even if it is less than 50% of the total votes polled.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Speaker and Deputy speaker are elected by the house. This is a convention (not constitutional provision) that usually the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Devices of Parliamentary Proceedings

Devices Of Parliamentary Proceeding

• Adjournment Motion: It is introduced to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance which is definite, factual, urgent, matter of recent
• Question Hour: In the First Hour of parliamentary sitting usually members ask questions and ministers give answers but sometimes questions can be asked to private members too.
• Three types of Question are asked namely–
  • Starred Question: Require oral answer and Supplementary question can be
  • Unstarred Question: Require written answer and Supplementary question cannot be asked.
  • Short Notice Question: Answered orally and asked on short notice of less than 10 days.

Thus, Adjournment Motion, Question Hour and Supplementary Question, all constitutes devices of the Parliament of India through which it exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Legislative Procedure of Parliament

Statement 1 is incorrect: A Private Member bill can be introduced by any member of the Parliament other than a minister. Whereas, a bill introduced by a Minister in the Parliament is called a public bill. A Private member bill generally reflects the stand of the opposition party on public matters. There is less likelihood that the Parliament will adopt it. Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As of now around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence in Indian Parliament.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Judicial Review

Judicial Review:

• In general terms, judicial review refers to the power and ability of High Courts and Supreme Court to review laws or judgments to ensure that they do not violate constitutional or legal provisions.
  • Article 13: states that, Courts can review government orders, legislations, byelaw, rule, regulation, notification or any law in force in Indian Territory.
  • Article 32/Article 226: allows a person to move to SC/HC in case of violation of fundamental rights. Thus, SC & HC can issue writs as constitutional remedies against the wrongdoer.
  • Article 137: empowers SC to review judgments or orders made by the Supreme Court itself. The review will be done by a larger bench of SC.
  • Article 142: allows the Supreme Court to pass such a decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
• Primarily, Article 13, 32 and 226 forms the core of judicial review, of which Article 13 and 32 forms part of Fundamental Right.
• Further judicial review has also been considered as part of basic structure of the Indian Constitution and hence cannot be amended.
• Thus, the Courts are empowered to declare a statute ultra vires the constitution and to nullify an executive action as unconstitutional if they violate constitutional provisions or alter fundamental rights.
• These powers of judicial review are given not to make the judiciary superior, but to ensure a system of checks and balances between the legislature and the executive on one hand, and the judiciary on the

Ans: b      

Sub-Theme: Objective of Local Governance

Option (b) is correct: The main idea behind the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) or Local Self-Government is to promote grass root democracy and development. The main aim is to evolve a system of democratic decentralisation and people’s participation with a view to ensure rapid socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice.

NOTE: Phrase to emphasis here is “Best”. Democratic decentralisation is the best description of Local self-government. Balwant Rai Mehta committee (on Community Development Program) in 1957 recommended the establishment of a scheme of Democratic decentralisation with 3-tiered structure of PRI.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Election Commission of India

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Strength of ECI is not specified in the Constitution, it is at the discretion of the President. Currently, there are 3 Members.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The most important function of the commission is to decide the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye- elections.

Statement 3 is Correct: It grants recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Legislative Power of Parliament

Legislative Power

• In accordance with the Constitution the Parliament has the authority to enact legislation on all matters listed in the Union List and Concurrent List.
• If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect with not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, the Union Parliament may legislate on any item on the State List in the interest of the country.
• As per Article 250, it can also formulate laws over the State List when an Emergency is declared in the country, or President’s Rule is declared in any State.
• Article 253 says that it can also formulate laws on any matter pertaining to the State List if it is deemed necessary for the implementation of international treaties or agreements concluded with foreign
• Apart from these legislative powers the Parliament also enjoys the Executive Power, Financial Powers, Constituent Powers, Judicial Powers, Electoral Powers, and other

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Legislative Procedure of Parliament

• Statement 1 is incorrect: No bill lapses on prorogation. Prorogation does not affect thebills or any other business pending before the House.
• Statement 2 is correct: A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
• Additional Information:
  • Bill lapses:
    • Bills pending in the Lok Sabha (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha)
    • Bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya (Note – A bill originating in Lok Sabha lapses)
  • Bills does not lapse:
    • Bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
    • Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha.
    • Bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president.
    • Bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: State Executives

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief Secretary is ‘chosen’ by the Chief Minister. As the appointment of Chief Secretary is an executive action of the Chief Minister, it is taken in the name of the Governor of the State.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Though the Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years, there is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief Secretary of a State.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Basics of Panchayati Raj System

Statement 1 is incorrect: Part IX of the Constitution deals with the Panchayati Raj System in India. The Panchayati Raj was constitutionalized in India through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. As per the act, no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he has attained the age of 21 years. Therefore, the minimum age is 21.

Statement 2 is correct: Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office only for the remaining period.

Ans: b     

Sub-Theme: Judicial Power of Panchayat

Statement 1 is incorrect: The establishment, jurisdiction, and process in civil and criminal proceedings are all outlined in the Gram Nyayalayas Act. As per the Gram Nyayalaya Act, the Gram Nyayalayas can hear both the civil and criminal cases.

Statement 2 is correct: The Court shall try to settle disputes via conciliation between the parties and the court can make use of the conciliators (social workers) to be appointed for this purpose.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution

The fifth and the sixth schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions related to the protection of the interests of the Scheduled Tribes.

• Fifth Schedule: Deals with the provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram (AMTM).
• Article 244 (1) of the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by the President of India and are mentioned in the 5th schedule of the Constitution.
• Sixth Schedule: It deals with the provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in 4 NE states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram (Not Manipur).

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles

• Statement 1 is correct: The Directive Principles deals with a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
  • Article 38: Deals with the promotion of the welfare of the people by securing and protecting a social order by ensuring social, economic and political justice and by minimising inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
  • R. Ambedkar opined that the Directives have great value because they lay down that the goal of Indian polity is ‘economic democracy’ as distinguished from ‘political democracy’.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 37 Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles

• • The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The DPSPs have been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland. It constitutes a comprehensive socio economic and political programme for a modern democratic State. DPSP embodies the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’.
  • Article 38 (1): The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.

Additional Information:

• Fundamental Rights: It is the basic human rights enshrined in Article 12 -35 of Part III of Indian They are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.
• Preamble: It is the ideals and philosophy of the The Preamble gives an idea about the following:
  •  Source of the constitution
  • Nature of Indian state
  • Statement of its objectives
  • Date of its adoption
• Seventh Schedule: The seventh schedule under Article 246 in Part XI of the Constitution deals with the division of powers between the union and the states. It contains three lists- Union List, State List and Concurrent List.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: List of Fundamental Duties

• Article 51A of part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties. These duties are the moral and civic obligations that all citizens of a nation
• In 1976, the Fundamental Duties were first recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee, its need was felt during the internal emergency (1975-77) and were added to the Constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• One of the Fundamental Duties is to “To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India” among the 11 Fundamental

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Parliamentary System of Government

India has a parliamentary system of government. The Union Parliament is the supreme legislative body in the country and in a Parliamentary system, the executive is responsible for Parliament. In India, this system is applicable to both Union and State level. The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers (CoM) are responsible to the Lok Sabha. This is called Collective Responsibility, which is considered as the bedrock of Parliamentary Government. Article 75 of the Constitution of India states that CoM is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can remove CoM by passing no confidence motion.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Powers of President/Executives

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Article 53(1), the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Cabinet Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant of the Government of India and he/she is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Annual Financial Statement / Money Bill

• Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha can keep the Money Bill for a maximum period of 14 days. The house cannot amend or reject the Money Bill, it should return the bill with or without recommendation to Lok Sabha, after that Lok Sabha may accept or reject recommendation.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants; it is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal status with the Lok Sabha on the matter of discussion of Annual Financial Statement.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Joint Session of Parliament

Joint sitting (Article 108) of two house:

• It is extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill –
  • If the bill is rejected by the other
  • If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill; or
  • If more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it.
• Summon: The president can summon joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Interpretation of Constitution The Supreme Court as the Custodian of the Indian Constitution:

• Indian Judiciary is an integrated, powerful and independent judiciary.
• The Legislature and Executive works on making laws and implementation of the laws, but the Judiciary works on safeguarding the public interest by checking into overreach, misuse and error of law.
• Therefore, the authority to amend the constitution lies with the Parliament, but the SC has the authority to examine the validity of those amendments.
• SC has the power of Judicial
• According to Article 32, the SC is the guardian of Fundamental Rights.
• The SC also an interpreter and Guardian of the Constitution.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Composition of Legislative Assembly/Legislative Council

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 171, the maximum strength of the Legislative Council of the state cannot be more than one third of total strength of assembly. However, the size of the Legislative Council cannot be less than 40 members. The constitution has fixed the maximum and minimum limits but actual strength is fixed by Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members from amongst itself.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Objective of Local Governance

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The main idea behind the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) is to promote grass root democracy and development. The main aim is to evolve a system of democratic decentralisation and people’s participation with a view to ensure rapid socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Political accountability can be achieved in any system with democratic rule.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial mobilisation was never the basis for the establishment of PRI.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution

Tenth Schedule:

• It deals  with  the  provisions  as  to disqualification on grounds of defection.
• In 1985, the 52nd Amendment Act added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution.
• On the basis of a petition by any other member of the House, it lays out the procedure by which a legislator may be removed from office on the grounds of defection by the Presiding officer of a legislature.
• The Chairman or Speaker of that House is tasked with making the final determination regarding disqualification due to defection.
• Both the Parliament and state legislatures are subject to the statute.
• The Presiding Officer’s decision is not subject to judicial review, according to the original law.
• This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan judgement (1992), thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court. Judicial review is a basic feature of the constitution.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Liberal-Intellectual Principles

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution. The DPSPs have been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland. Article 51 is clear in dealing with the international peace and security and for achieving the same it directs the State to focus on:

• Maintaining just and honourable relations with the nations.
• Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations.
• Encourage settlement  of international disputes by arbitration.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Constitutional Government

The Constitutional Government is defined by the existence of a constitution. The idea behind constitutionalism is to place restrictions on the authority of the state so that it does not become autocratic. Thus, the Constitutional Government places restrictions on the Authority of the State to protect the interest of individual liberty (Example: Fundamental Rights).

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Powers of President

Statement 1 is correct: India follows a Parliamentary type of Government in which the President is the constitutional head of the state. He is the Executive head of India. Article 77(3) of the Indian Constitution says that the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 77(1) of the Indian Constitution lays down all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: No-Confidence Motion

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India does not mention about either a Confidence or a No Confidence Motion. A motion of “No Confidence Motion” against the Government can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha under rule 198. If the motion is accepted, then the party in power has to prove its majority in the House. The member need not give a reason for moving the no-confidence motion.

Statement 2 is correct: The party can remain in power when it shows its strength through a floor test which is primarily taken to know whether the executive enjoys the confidence of the legislature. If any member of the House feels that the government in power does not have a majority then he/she can move a no- confidence motion. A government can function only when it has majority support in the Lok Sabha.

Additional Information:

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Parliamentary Committees

The Estimates Committee was set up in 1950, on the recommendation of John Mathai. It consists of 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha and it is the largest committee. The minister cannot be the members of the estimates committee. Its function is to examine the budget and also suggest economies of public expenditure. It also suggests an alternative policy of bringing policy of economies.

Additional Information: Parliamentary Committee

• The Constitution of India mentions these committees at different places, but without making any specific provisions regarding their composition, tenure, functions, etc. as it has been dealt in detail in the rules of two
• Public Accounts Committee
• Origin: set up first in 1921 under Govt. of India Act 1919
• Composition: 22 (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha) Elected for one year – proportional representation by single transferable vote. The Chairman – from Opposition Minister cannot be a member.
• Function: To examine CAG Audit report and discover the irregularities

Committee on Public Undertakings

• Origin: set up on the recommendations of Krishna Menon Committee 1964
• Composition: 22 (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha) Elected for one year – proportional representation by single transferable vote. The Chairman – the opposition minister cannot be a member.
• Function: To examine reports and accounts of public sector Don’t involve day to day affairs of PSU.
• The Committee on Petitions
• Origin: It owes its origin to a resolution moved by a member in the then Council of State on 15 September 1921.
• Composition: 25 members (15 from Lok Sabha + 10 from Rajya Sabha) Nominated by Speaker/Chairman as the case may be.
• Function: To estimate every petition referred to it and if the petition complies with the rules to direct that it be circulated

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Executive Functions

• Statement 1 is correct: A cabinet secretary is appointed for a fixed period of time, usually two years. The All India Services (Death-Cum- Retirement-Benefits) Rules, 1958 state that the government may extend a cabinet secretary’s tenure as long as the overall length of service does not exceed four years. A Cabinet Secretary holds the responsibility of preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings.
• Statement 2 is correct: The prime minister has direct control over the cabinet secretariat. The cabinet secretary, who serves as the ex- officio chairman of the civil services board, is the administrative head of the secretariat. It also gives secretary assistance to the Cabinet Committees.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Secretariat facilitates government decision-making by providing interministerial coordination. The Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure is entrusted with the allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.

Ans: c          

Sub-Theme: Jurisdiction and Powers of Supreme Court

According to Article 131, a dispute between two or more states comes under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Other disputes which comes under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are:

• State and other states
• Centre and state on one side and other state on other side
• Original jurisdiction of the SC extends to any dispute between the GoI and one or more states

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Constitutional Provisions Pertaining to Supreme Court

• Article 124(1) mandates that there shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.
• The power to increase the number of judges in the SC is vested in the Parliament.
• In the Indian Constitution, Parliament is authorised to regulate judges.
• In the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2019, the number of judges in the SC was increased by 3 judges. As a result, there are now 34 judges in total, including the Chief Justice, as opposed to 31

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Discretionary Power of Governor

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 356, President’s Rule is imposed if the President, upon receipt of the report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This comes under the discretionary power of the Governor.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 164 (1) states that the Chief Minister and the other Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor.

Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 200 the Governor of a state can use his legislative power to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government does not come under Governor’s discretionary power. In the Nabam Rebia judgement (2016), the Supreme Court held that the exercise of Governor’s discretion under Article 163 is limited and his choice of action should not be arbitrary or fanciful.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Financial Relations b/w Centre and State

• Earlier taxes on toothpaste used to come under CST Act, which is administered by the State Government.
• The payment of sales Tax was made to the Sales Tax Authority in the state from where the goods are moved.
• Now the sales taxes on toothpaste comes under GST.

Ans: c         

Sub-Theme: NDC / Planning Commission / NITI Ayog

• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is constituted by the President under Article 280 to give its recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States. It defines the financial relations between the Centre and the States.
• Statement 2 is correct: Earlier, NDC served as “the highest decision-making authority” in the country on development matters. NDC used to advise the Planning Commission on planning. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Rural Development is entrusted with the task of accelerating the socio-economic development of rural India.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Urban Development is entrusted with the formulation and administration of the rules and regulations and laws relating to the housing and urban development in India.
• Statement 5 is correct: Parliament is the supreme legislative institution of the Republic of India. It is directly responsible to make laws for the welfare of the society.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Forms of Government

Parliamentary System entails the Executive responsible to the legislature for its policies and legislations. The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre and in the States. The Parliamentary Government is also known as Cabinet Government/Responsible Government/Westminster Model. Some of its features are as follows:

• In the Parliamentary System of Government members of the Cabinet are members of the Parliament. (Statement 1 is correct).
• The ministers in the Parliament hold the office till they enjoy the confidence of the Parliament. (Statement 2 is correct)
• The Head of the state is President, and he/she does not head the cabinet, he is considered to be the nominal executive. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble and Socialistic principles of DPSP

“Economic Justice” as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided both in the Preamble of the Constitution and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). This is evident as follows:

Preamble:

• The ideal of ‘justice’ mentioned in the preamble embraces three distinct forms- social, economical and political, where economic justice denotes the non- discrimination between people on the basis of economic factors.

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

• The Socialistic principles of DPSP reflect the ideology of socialism. It aims to provide social and economic justice and set the path towards a welfare state.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added the Article 38 in DPSP, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles

• According to Article 37 of the Indian Constitution, though Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

• DPSP constitutes a comprehensive socio economic and political programme for a modern democratic State. DPSP are ‘positive in nature’, which embodies the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’. DPSP are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters.

Additional Information:

Fundamental Rights and Duties are related to the role, responsibility and rights of the people (citizens/aliens).

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Procedure for the Amendment

Statement 1 is incorrect: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of the Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: If the bill seeks to amend the Federal provisions of the Constitution, then it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Election of the Vice President

• Statement 1 is incorrect: In accordance with Article 64 of the Constitution of India, the Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members. Hence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the member of that house.
• Statement 2 is correct: Vice President elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of all members of parliament (Both elected & nominated). The election is conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. State government does not participate in the Vice President’s election.

Ans: b         

Sub-Theme: Parliamentary Committee

Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts consists of 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. It is formed every year with its members serving one-year terms in office.

Statement 2 is correct: It scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.

Statement 3 is correct: It’s chief function is to examine the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Ans: b     

Sub-Theme: Functions of Parliament

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 75(3) of the constitution “the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People” not to the whole parliament as it includes Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha both.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(2) of the Constitution of India mandates that the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 78, it is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Money Bill

Money Bill (Article 110):

• Matter concerned with financial matters like the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
• Can be introduced Only in Lok
• Introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
• Cannot be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha should return the bill with or without recommendation Lok Sabha may accept or reject recommendation.
• Rajya Sabha can keep it for a maximum period of 14 days.
• Requires the certification of the
• Rajya Sabha has limited power with respect to money bills so no chance of any
• The President can reject or approve but cannot return it to parliament for

Ans: (d)

Sub-Theme: Functions of Parliament

Legislative Power

• The Parliament is empowered to make laws on all matters listed in the Union List and the Concurrent List of the Constitution.
• As per Article 250, it can also formulate laws over the State List when an Emergency is declared in the country, or President’s Rule is declared in any State.
• Article 253 says that it can also formulate laws on any matter pertaining to the State List if it is deemed necessary for the implementation of international treaties or agreements concluded with foreign nations.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Legal Services Authority/Legal Aid

Statement 1 is correct: The objective of National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is to provide free legal services to weaker sections of society for securing justice and are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities.

Statement 2 is correct: In every State, there is a State Legal Service Authority to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Appointment of Governor/ Administration of Union Territories

Articles 153 to 167 of Part VI of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions relating to the Governor of the States. The Governor of the state is the Chief executive head of the state. He is also the constitutional (nominal) head. He is the agent of the Central Government. The Indian Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.

Additional Information:

• Usually, there is a governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states. The 7th Constitutional Amendment also provided for the:
  • Appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court.
  • Establishment of a common high court for two or more states;
  • Extension the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories.
• As per Article 217(1) the Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts are to be appointed by the President.
• Section 45 in The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 states that the CM of the UT(Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir) is appointed by the President of India, while the oath is administered by the Lt. Governor of the respective UT.

Ans: c          

Sub-Theme: PESA Act

Option (c) is correct: The PESA act is for 5th schedule areas whereas creation of autonomous regions in tribal areas comes under ambit of 6th schedule.

Ans: d      

Sub-Theme: Power of Gram Sabha

Forest Rights Act, 2006:

• The act recognizes and vests the forest rights and occupation in Forest land to forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD) who have been residing in such forests for generations.
• The act further enjoins upon the Gram Sabha and rights holders the responsibilities and authority for sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity and maintenance of ecological balance of FDST and OTFD.
• While protecting the FDST and OTFD’s way of life and food security, it strengthens the conservation regime for the forests.
• It aims to rectify the historical wrongs committed against the OTFD and FDST, who are crucial to the sustainability and survival of the forest ecosystem.

Ans: (c)          

Sub-Theme: Attorney General of India

Article 76 of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions of the Attorney General of India. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India. He is a Qualified to be Judge of Supreme Court (i.e. Citizen of India and must have been a judge of some high court for 5 years or an advocate of some high court for 10 years) or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.

He has the Right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he is a member, but without a right to vote.

Ans: b        

Sub-Theme: NDC / Planning Commission / NITI AAYOG

Statement 1 is correct: National Development Council (NDC) and Planning Commission (PC) have been abolished now. NDC was an advisory body and used to advise the Planning Commission on planning and included all CMs and union ministers etc.

Statement 2 is correct: The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.

Statement 3 is correct: Preparation of plans and implementation of plans for economic development and social justice are one of the major powers and functions that comes under Panchayat Raj Institution.

Ans: b        

Sub-Theme: NDC/Planning Commission/NITI AAYOG

Option (b) is correct: NDC comprises the Prime Minister, all the Union Cabinet Ministers, the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories and the Members of the Planning Commission. It does not include the chairman of the Finance Commission.

Ans: d         

Sub-Theme: NDC / Planning Commission / NITI Ayog

The National Development Council, the Planning Commission and the Zonal Councils do not find its mention in the Constitution. They are the Non-Constitutional Bodies. Few details about the same are as follows:

• The National Development Council (NDC) was set up on 6 August 1952 by an executive order of the government. It served as “the highest decision-making authority” in the country on development matters. The National Development Council used to advise the Planning Commission on planning. Currently, there is no existence of NDC and Planning Commission, it has been replaced by NITI AAYOG.
• The Planning Commission of India was set up by a Resolution of the Government of India in March 1950.
• The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956. The act divided the country into five zones- Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern and provided a zonal council for each zone.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Acts and Regulations under The Crown Rule (1858–1947)

The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is given under 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The 7th Schedule divides the powers into 3 lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. This division of powers is based on the Government of India Act, 1935. It divided the powers between the Centre and provinces in terms of three lists – Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items).

Other Important Features of Government of India Act, 1935:

• It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place, while adopting the dyarchy at the
• It introduced Bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces.
• It further extended the principle of communal representation to the depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women and labour (workers).

It also abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858.

Ans: b

Sub-Theme: Gandhian Principles and Liberal- Intellectual Principles

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution. The DPSPs have been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
• Though the Indian Constitution does not specify classification of Directive Principles of State Policy, but on the basis of content, these are classified into Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal-Intellectual.
• Article 40 of the Constitution deals with Organising Village Panchayats and endows them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government. This is one of the Gandhian Principles in DPSP.
• The idea of Promoting Cottage Industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas is based on Gandhian Principles and the same is mentioned under Article 43.

Additional Information:

• Article 44 one of the directive principles of the Constitution deals with securing for citizens of India a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for the citizens throughout the territory of India. This article comes under the Liberal- Intellectual Principles, which represent the ideology of A UCC is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc.
• This section of Article 43 comes under the Socialistic Principles of DPSP which says, to secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers.

Ans: d

Sub-Theme: Combination of DPSP and schedules Various provisions in the Constitution of India have a bearing on These include Directive Principles of State Policy, Rural and Urban Local Bodies and Seventh Schedule of the Constitution:

Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP):

• Under Article 45 of Liberal-Intellectual Principles lays down the provision of early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six
• With a view of making the right to free and compulsory education a fundamental right, the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A, conferring on all children in the age group of 6 to 14
• The Act amends in Part-III, Part–IV and Part-IV(a) of the Constitution.

Rural and Urban Local Bodies:

• The Schedule 11 added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, specifies the powers, responsibilities and authority of Panchayat and under Article 243-G the Panchayati Raj Institutions have allowed 29 subjects to work in their local areas and Education was one of them.
• The Schedule 12 added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, specifies the powers, responsibilities and authority of Municipalities and under the Article 243-W the Constitution provides for 18 subjects to the Municipalities and education is included here too.
• Fifth and Sixth Schedules are related to Scheduled and Tribal regions, which also deal with education.
• Seventh Schedule: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains three lists- Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
• The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 shifted the following subjects from State list to Concurrent list –
  • Education
  • Forests
  • Weights & Measures
  • Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
  • Administration of Justice

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: List of Fundamental Duties

• Article 51A of part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties. These duties are the moral and civic obligations that all citizens of a nation
• In 1976, the Fundamental Duties were first recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee, its need was felt during the internal emergency (1975-77) and were added to the Constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• Later, one more Fundamental Duty was added by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

List of Fundamental Duties are –

• To abide by the Constitution and respect National Flag and National Anthem (Not national song)
• To follow the noble ideals that inspired the struggle for freedom.
• To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote the common spirit of brotherhood amongst all Indians and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
• To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s culture.
• To protect the national environment including forests, lakes, wildlife, etc.
• To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of reform and inquiry.
• To safeguard public property and to abjure
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individuals.
• To provide opportunity for education to his child between the age 6 and 14 years

Thus, Protecting the weaker sections from social injustice is more relevant to Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP), not Fundamental Duties.

Ans: c

Sub-Theme: Legislative Powers of President

India follows a Parliamentary  type of Government in which the President is the constitutional head of the state. He is the Executive head of India, and all the executive powers of the Union shall be vested in him. The President lays Reports and Statements before the parliament of the following bodies:

• Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General
• Annual report of UPSC
• Reports of Finance
• Reports of Special officers of SC & ST
• Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
• Report of the National Commission of Backward Classes.

Ans: a

Sub-Theme: Appointment of PM