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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following states:
Mizoram
Manipur
Nagaland
Assam
Arunachal Pradesh
How many of the above states share a border with Tripura?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
Recently, the Indian Prime Minister virtually inaugurated the 3rd Land Port at Sabroom in South Tripura. After Akhaura and Srimantapur Integrated Check Post (ICP), Sabroom Land Port is the biggest one for the region, allowing Northeast India and other states easy access to the Chittagong port (Bangladesh).
Tripura is a northeastern state of India.
Bordering Regions:
National level: Mizoram and Assam
International level: Bangladesh
Tripura is connected with the rest of India by National Highway-8 linking Guwahati to Sabroom via Agartala.
Historical Background: Tripura was merged with India on 15th October, 1949.
Before this, Tripura was a princely independent state of the Manikya Dynasty for more than 1300 years.
In the year 1956, Tripura was designated as Union Territory and on 21st January, 1972 it acquired the status of full-fledged State.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
Recently, the Indian Prime Minister virtually inaugurated the 3rd Land Port at Sabroom in South Tripura. After Akhaura and Srimantapur Integrated Check Post (ICP), Sabroom Land Port is the biggest one for the region, allowing Northeast India and other states easy access to the Chittagong port (Bangladesh).
Tripura is a northeastern state of India.
Bordering Regions:
National level: Mizoram and Assam
International level: Bangladesh
Tripura is connected with the rest of India by National Highway-8 linking Guwahati to Sabroom via Agartala.
Historical Background: Tripura was merged with India on 15th October, 1949.
Before this, Tripura was a princely independent state of the Manikya Dynasty for more than 1300 years.
In the year 1956, Tripura was designated as Union Territory and on 21st January, 1972 it acquired the status of full-fledged State.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
With reference to Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA-2019) in India, consider the following statements:
It allows non-Muslim migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan to seek Indian citizenship through registration.
The term “citizen” has been defined in Part II of the Indian Constitution.
Members of the designated communities under (CAA-2019) are exempted from criminal cases under the Foreigners Act, 1946.
How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the Rules under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA-2019) called “the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024”. It enables the persons eligible under CAA-2019 to apply for grant of Indian citizenship.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The CAA allows non-Muslim migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan to seek Indian citizenship through naturalisation (not registration), provided they belong to the Hindu, Sikh, Christian, Parsi, Jain, and Buddhist communities who entered India on or before 31st December, 2014.
Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution and thus is under the exclusive jurisdiction of Parliament.
A person can acquire citizenship by naturalisation if he/she is ordinarily resident of India for 12 years (throughout 12 months preceding the date of application and 11 years in the aggregate) and fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not define the term ‘citizen’ but details of various categories of persons who are entitled to citizenship are given in Part 2 (Articles 5 to 11) of the Constitution of India.
There are four ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired: birth, descent, registration and naturalisation. The provisions are listed under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Statement 3 is correct: Members of the designated communities under the Act are exempted from criminal cases under the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Passport Act, 1920, if they entered India before December 31, 2014.
The two Acts specify punishment for entering the country illegally and staying here on expired visas and permits.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the Rules under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA-2019) called “the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024”. It enables the persons eligible under CAA-2019 to apply for grant of Indian citizenship.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The CAA allows non-Muslim migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan to seek Indian citizenship through naturalisation (not registration), provided they belong to the Hindu, Sikh, Christian, Parsi, Jain, and Buddhist communities who entered India on or before 31st December, 2014.
Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution and thus is under the exclusive jurisdiction of Parliament.
A person can acquire citizenship by naturalisation if he/she is ordinarily resident of India for 12 years (throughout 12 months preceding the date of application and 11 years in the aggregate) and fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not define the term ‘citizen’ but details of various categories of persons who are entitled to citizenship are given in Part 2 (Articles 5 to 11) of the Constitution of India.
There are four ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired: birth, descent, registration and naturalisation. The provisions are listed under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Statement 3 is correct: Members of the designated communities under the Act are exempted from criminal cases under the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Passport Act, 1920, if they entered India before December 31, 2014.
The two Acts specify punishment for entering the country illegally and staying here on expired visas and permits.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
With reference to the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), consider the following statements:
In India, EPR was introduced as an important feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.
It makes producers and consumers responsible for the environmental impacts of the products manufactured and used by them respectively.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
To streamline e-waste management, the Centre is planning to establish an online platform for facilitating the trade of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) certificates. It is also aimed at streamlining the processes and facilitating better compliance with guidelines.
The forthcoming platform developed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is poised to transform the EPR certificate market, enhancing both transparency and efficiency.
Statement 1 is correct: The E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 introduced the concept of EPR for the first time in India.
E-Waste (management and handling) Rules, 2016 adopted Extended Producers Responsibility for the first time in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
EPR is a policy that puts the burden of a product’s afterlife on the shoulders of the producer, not on consumers or governments. This means companies that make things are financially or physically responsible for collecting and recycling their products once they’re used up.
The aim of EPR is to encourage companies to design products that are easier to reuse or recycle from the outset, reducing waste and pollution in the long run.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
To streamline e-waste management, the Centre is planning to establish an online platform for facilitating the trade of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) certificates. It is also aimed at streamlining the processes and facilitating better compliance with guidelines.
The forthcoming platform developed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is poised to transform the EPR certificate market, enhancing both transparency and efficiency.
Statement 1 is correct: The E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 introduced the concept of EPR for the first time in India.
E-Waste (management and handling) Rules, 2016 adopted Extended Producers Responsibility for the first time in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
EPR is a policy that puts the burden of a product’s afterlife on the shoulders of the producer, not on consumers or governments. This means companies that make things are financially or physically responsible for collecting and recycling their products once they’re used up.
The aim of EPR is to encourage companies to design products that are easier to reuse or recycle from the outset, reducing waste and pollution in the long run.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
With reference to Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF), consider the following statements:
It is the world’s largest climate fund developed by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
It targets the establishment of climate resilience infrastructure in the World by 2045.
Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Recently, SIDBI, the principal financial institution for MSME development announced a new fund, “Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF)”. The $120 million ASF anchored by SIDBI as an accredited entity was approved by Green Climate Fund (GCF).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Green Climate Fund is a key component of the historic Paris Agreement and also the world’s largest climate fund.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The fund’s investment strategy targets four significant transitions– built environment; energy industry; human security, livelihood, wellbeing; and land use-forests and ecosystems, employing four key approaches.
ASF is to enable investment into early-stage startups and MSMEs harnessing technology-led innovation to spur climate solutions and sustainability in India.
SIDBI, designated as an AE and direct access entity (DAE) with the GCF, is accessing climate finance to implement low-carbon and climate-resilient projects and will work under the guidance of the Union Environment, Forests and Climate Change ministry.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Recently, SIDBI, the principal financial institution for MSME development announced a new fund, “Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF)”. The $120 million ASF anchored by SIDBI as an accredited entity was approved by Green Climate Fund (GCF).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Green Climate Fund is a key component of the historic Paris Agreement and also the world’s largest climate fund.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The fund’s investment strategy targets four significant transitions– built environment; energy industry; human security, livelihood, wellbeing; and land use-forests and ecosystems, employing four key approaches.
ASF is to enable investment into early-stage startups and MSMEs harnessing technology-led innovation to spur climate solutions and sustainability in India.
SIDBI, designated as an AE and direct access entity (DAE) with the GCF, is accessing climate finance to implement low-carbon and climate-resilient projects and will work under the guidance of the Union Environment, Forests and Climate Change ministry.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
With reference to Agni-V Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?
It is India’s longest range ballistic missile.
It uses a three-stage solid fuelled engine.
It is a Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) equipped missile.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
Recently, India announced the successful test firing of Agni-V ballistic missile with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) under Mission Divyastra.
It was carried out from Dr A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha.
Statement 1 is correct: Agni-V is India’s longest range ballistic missile with a “range of more than 5000 kms”. Its maiden flight test was conducted in April 2012 and has since been tested multiple times.
It has also been canistered, which improves ease of handling and operation.
Statement 2 is correct: Agni-V uses a three-stage solid fuelled engine and can reach most parts of China.
Statement 3 is correct: It is a Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) equipped missile.
MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology is the capability that allows multiple warheads to be loaded on a single missile delivery system and programmed to hit different targets, thus greatly enhancing the missile’s destructive potential.
The development of MIRV capability marks a significant upgrade for India’s missile systems, and expands its nuclear options.
The MIVR is not new and was developed in the 1960s and first deployed in the 1970s by the United States and the then Soviet Union.
Over the years, France, the United Kingdom, and eventually China have developed this technology. Pakistan too has claimed to have tested an MIRV-equipped missile called Ababeel, first in 2017 and then in 2023.
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
Recently, India announced the successful test firing of Agni-V ballistic missile with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) under Mission Divyastra.
It was carried out from Dr A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha.
Statement 1 is correct: Agni-V is India’s longest range ballistic missile with a “range of more than 5000 kms”. Its maiden flight test was conducted in April 2012 and has since been tested multiple times.
It has also been canistered, which improves ease of handling and operation.
Statement 2 is correct: Agni-V uses a three-stage solid fuelled engine and can reach most parts of China.
Statement 3 is correct: It is a Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) equipped missile.
MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology is the capability that allows multiple warheads to be loaded on a single missile delivery system and programmed to hit different targets, thus greatly enhancing the missile’s destructive potential.
The development of MIRV capability marks a significant upgrade for India’s missile systems, and expands its nuclear options.
The MIVR is not new and was developed in the 1960s and first deployed in the 1970s by the United States and the then Soviet Union.
Over the years, France, the United Kingdom, and eventually China have developed this technology. Pakistan too has claimed to have tested an MIRV-equipped missile called Ababeel, first in 2017 and then in 2023.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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