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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2019:
The Act does not penalise Transgenders for begging, forced or bonded labour.
The Act does differentiate between transgenders, transsexuals, intersex persons and genderqueer.
Getting Transgender Certificate and Identity Cards as per their self-perceived identity is an important provision of The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
Recently, the Pune police commissioner has banned transgender persons from begging under Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure at traffic signals, private residences and other public spaces, hospitals, etc.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The subclause 18 (a) of clause 8 of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2019 stated that ‘Whoever (a) compels or entices a transgender person to indulge in the act of begging or other similar forms of forced or bonded labor other than any compulsory service for public purposes imposed by Government’ will be criminalized.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act does not differentiate between transgenders, transsexuals, intersex persons and genderqueer.
Transgenders have a different gender identity than what was assigned to them at birth, while intersex indicates the diversity of gender based on biological characteristics at birth.
There are also multiple variations in intersex itself.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Portal for Transgender persons grants Transgender certificates to Transgenders.
The portal acts as a facilitator between the districts authorities and beneficiaries for easy access to Transgender Certificate and Identity Cards as per their self-perceived identity which is an important provision of The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 & Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2020.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
Recently, the Pune police commissioner has banned transgender persons from begging under Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure at traffic signals, private residences and other public spaces, hospitals, etc.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The subclause 18 (a) of clause 8 of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2019 stated that ‘Whoever (a) compels or entices a transgender person to indulge in the act of begging or other similar forms of forced or bonded labor other than any compulsory service for public purposes imposed by Government’ will be criminalized.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act does not differentiate between transgenders, transsexuals, intersex persons and genderqueer.
Transgenders have a different gender identity than what was assigned to them at birth, while intersex indicates the diversity of gender based on biological characteristics at birth.
There are also multiple variations in intersex itself.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Portal for Transgender persons grants Transgender certificates to Transgenders.
The portal acts as a facilitator between the districts authorities and beneficiaries for easy access to Transgender Certificate and Identity Cards as per their self-perceived identity which is an important provision of The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 & Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2020.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Considers the following statement with reference to Municipal Corporations:
They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India.
The term for every municipality provided under the Constitution is for a maximum six years from the date scheduled for its first meeting.
If the remainder period of the dissolved municipality is less than six months then it is not necessary to hold elections within that time frame (six months).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
Recent CAG’s audit reports of 17 States on the implementation of the 74th Constitution Amendment Act (74th CAA) observes that over 1,500 municipalities did not have elected councils in place during the audit period of 2015-2021 across States
Statement 1 is correct: Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others.
They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 243U of the Constitution every Municipality, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer:
Provided that a Municipality shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before its dissolution.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 243-U(3) provides that an election to constitute a Municipality shall be completed.
Before the expiry of its duration specified in clause (1);
Before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution: provided that where the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Municipality would have continued is less than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any election under this clause for constituting the municipality for such period.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
Recent CAG’s audit reports of 17 States on the implementation of the 74th Constitution Amendment Act (74th CAA) observes that over 1,500 municipalities did not have elected councils in place during the audit period of 2015-2021 across States
Statement 1 is correct: Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others.
They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 243U of the Constitution every Municipality, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer:
Provided that a Municipality shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before its dissolution.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 243-U(3) provides that an election to constitute a Municipality shall be completed.
Before the expiry of its duration specified in clause (1);
Before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution: provided that where the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Municipality would have continued is less than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any election under this clause for constituting the municipality for such period.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of religion under Article 25 is/ are correct?
The rights under Article 25 of the Constitution cover only religious beliefs but not practices.
These rights are available to both the citizens of the country and to foreigners.
The States are given powers to enact local freedom of religion laws under the constitution.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
The Allahabad High Court, refused to quash an FIR in an interfaith live-in relationship case, citing Uttar Pradesh’s Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act, 2021
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Article 25 is a very comprehensive provision, covering the right to freely choose to believe in God or not declare their religious belief freely (without any fear of backlash & negative discrimination), or alternatively choose to keep this matter private.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 25 allows practising the religion of their choice by [performing the rituals involved in the said religion.
Propagating, i.e. disseminating the principles of their chosen faith, but without forcibly converting people.
Moreover, these rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.
Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme court held in Arun Ghosh vs. State of West Bengal held that it was within the power of States under Entry 1 of the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution to enact local Freedom of Religion laws.
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
The Allahabad High Court, refused to quash an FIR in an interfaith live-in relationship case, citing Uttar Pradesh’s Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act, 2021
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Article 25 is a very comprehensive provision, covering the right to freely choose to believe in God or not declare their religious belief freely (without any fear of backlash & negative discrimination), or alternatively choose to keep this matter private.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 25 allows practising the religion of their choice by [performing the rituals involved in the said religion.
Propagating, i.e. disseminating the principles of their chosen faith, but without forcibly converting people.
Moreover, these rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.
Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme court held in Arun Ghosh vs. State of West Bengal held that it was within the power of States under Entry 1 of the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution to enact local Freedom of Religion laws.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
Which of the following statements are correct with reference eto Rio Grande?
The Rio Grande acts as the natural national border between Brazil and Argentina.
The Rio Grande is originates in the San Juan Mountains of Colorado
The Rio Grande flows on its way to the Atlantic Ocean.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
In recent years, the Rio Grande has mostly been in the news as a hotspot of migration into the US from the rest of the Americas as well as around the world.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rio Grande is a 3,051-km-long river serving as the natural national border between the US-Mexican border through most of Texas, and it is a common route for migrants trying to enter the United States.
Statement 2 is correct: The Rio Grande is a major river in North America, originating in the San Juan Mountains of Colorado, USA, and flowing into the Gulf of Mexico.
The Rio Grande stretches approximately 3,051 kilometers (1,896 miles) from its headwaters in Colorado to its mouth at the Gulf of Mexico.
Statement 3 is correct: Rio Grande rises as a clear, snow-fed mountain stream more than 12,000 feet (3,700 metres) above sea level in the Rocky Mountains.
The Rio Grande descends across steppes and deserts, watering rich agricultural regions as it flows on its way to the Gulf of mexico.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
In recent years, the Rio Grande has mostly been in the news as a hotspot of migration into the US from the rest of the Americas as well as around the world.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rio Grande is a 3,051-km-long river serving as the natural national border between the US-Mexican border through most of Texas, and it is a common route for migrants trying to enter the United States.
Statement 2 is correct: The Rio Grande is a major river in North America, originating in the San Juan Mountains of Colorado, USA, and flowing into the Gulf of Mexico.
The Rio Grande stretches approximately 3,051 kilometers (1,896 miles) from its headwaters in Colorado to its mouth at the Gulf of Mexico.
Statement 3 is correct: Rio Grande rises as a clear, snow-fed mountain stream more than 12,000 feet (3,700 metres) above sea level in the Rocky Mountains.
The Rio Grande descends across steppes and deserts, watering rich agricultural regions as it flows on its way to the Gulf of mexico.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
With reference to Nirbhay Cruise Missile, consider the following statements:
Nirbhay is short-range super-sonic cruise missile.
The operational range of Nirbhay Missiles is about 290 km.
It is a Joint initiative between India and Israel.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
Recently DRDO successfully test fires indigenous long range subsonic cruise missiles.The specifications of the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) were not mentioned but it looked a lot similar to the Nirbhay subsonic cruise missile
Statement 1 and 3 is incorrect:Nirbhay Cruise Missile is a long-range sub-sonic cruise missile. It is India’s first indigenously-produced cruise missile.
The missile was developed by the Bengaluru-based Aeronautical Development Establishment, a lab under India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is capable of loitering and cruising at Mach 0.7 (sub-sonic) at altitudes as low as 100 metres.
It can be armed with a 200-300 kilogram warhead. It can carry both conventional and nuclear warheads.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Nirbhay measures 6.0 m in length, 0.5 m in body diameter, and weighs 1,500-1,600 kg at launch.
It can strike land targets at a distance of up to 1,000 kilometres.
It uses a solid propellant booster motor that is jettisoned shortly after launch, switching over to a turbojet engine.
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
Recently DRDO successfully test fires indigenous long range subsonic cruise missiles.The specifications of the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) were not mentioned but it looked a lot similar to the Nirbhay subsonic cruise missile
Statement 1 and 3 is incorrect:Nirbhay Cruise Missile is a long-range sub-sonic cruise missile. It is India’s first indigenously-produced cruise missile.
The missile was developed by the Bengaluru-based Aeronautical Development Establishment, a lab under India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is capable of loitering and cruising at Mach 0.7 (sub-sonic) at altitudes as low as 100 metres.
It can be armed with a 200-300 kilogram warhead. It can carry both conventional and nuclear warheads.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Nirbhay measures 6.0 m in length, 0.5 m in body diameter, and weighs 1,500-1,600 kg at launch.
It can strike land targets at a distance of up to 1,000 kilometres.
It uses a solid propellant booster motor that is jettisoned shortly after launch, switching over to a turbojet engine.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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