Ans: B

Exp:
The Supreme Court stayed the initiation of disqualification proceedings against six MLAs of Himachal Pradesh State legislature who were appointed as chief parliamentary secretaries in 2023.

• The Himachal Pradesh High Court had declared illegal the protection granted under state law to six MLAs appointed as Chief Parliamentary Secretaries (CPS) and Parliamentary Secretaries (PS), deeming it unconstitutional and an “office of profit.”

The grounds for disqualification of a Member of Parliament or State Legislature are outlined in Article 102 (for Parliament) and Article 191 (for State Legislature) of the Indian Constitution. 

These include:

• Holding an office of profit (except those exempted by law).
• Being of unsound mind or undischarged insolvent.
• Ceasing to be a citizen of India or acquiring citizenship of another country.
• A person is disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. (such as  Representation of the People Act, 1951). Hence Statement 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Membership in more than one political party is not a ground for disqualification; however, it may violate provisions under the Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule). Hence Statement 4 is incorrect.

Ans: A

Exp:

UN Report Highlights the Critical Threat of Nitrous Oxide Emissions to Climate and Ozone Goals,

• The report warns that without urgent action on rising N₂O emissions, there is no viable pathway to limiting global warming to 1.5°C and provides tangible tools to reduce emissions by more than 40% from current levels.
• N₂O is the third most significant greenhouse gas and the top ozone-depleting substance still being released into the atmosphere, risking exposing much of the world’s population to higher UV levels and an increase in skin cancers and cataracts.

About  Nitrous Oxide (N₂O):

• Statement 1 is correct: Nitrous oxide is approximately 270 times more potent than carbon dioxide in terms of warming the planet, and currently responsible for approximately 10 percent of net global warming since the industrial revolution.
  • Taking ambitious action to reduce N₂O emissions could help prevent up to 20 million premature deaths globally by 2050 due to poor air quality and avoid the equivalent of up to 235 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide emissions by 2100.
• Statement 2 is correct: Natural sources of N₂O include microbial activity in soils and oceans.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Around 75% of anthropogenic N₂O emissions originate from agricultural activities, especially synthetic fertilizers and manure.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: N₂O has a long atmospheric lifetime of about 114 years.

Ans: A

Exp:
Iran said on November 22, 2024,  it would launch a series of “new and advanced” centrifuges in response to a resolution adopted by the IAEA that censures Tehran for what the agency called lack of cooperation.

• The censure motion brought by Britain, France, Germany and the United States at the International Atomic Energy Agency’s 35-nation board followed a similar one in June.

About International Atomic Energy Agency:

• • It is the world’s central intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical cooperation in the nuclear field. 
  • It works for the safe, secure and peaceful uses of nuclear science and technology, contributing to international peace and security and the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals.
  • Though established as an autonomous organisation, independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.

• Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.

• Statement 1 is correct: The IAEA’s primary role is to verify that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes and not diverted to weaponization. It does not impose sanctions, negotiate agreements, or develop nuclear weapons. 
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: The IAEA does not have the authority to impose economic sanctions. The IAEA’s role is limited to reporting findings and concerns to member states and the UN.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: The IAEA does not negotiate agreements between countries. Bilateral or multilateral negotiations, such as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) or the 2015 Iran nuclear deal, are conducted by individual countries or groups of nations (e.g., P5+1). The IAEA’s role is to monitor and verify compliance with such agreements once they are in place.
• Statement 4 is Incorrect: The IAEA does not engage in weapon development. Promoting nuclear weapons development would directly contradict its core mission and the principles of the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).

Ans: C

Exp:

The union government notified the Telecommunications (Telecom Cyber Security) Rules, 2024 that give power to the Centre to seek from a telecommunication entity traffic data and any other data, other than content of messages.

• The rules have been issued by exercising powers under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, replacing the Prevention of Tampering of the Mobile Device Equipment Identification Number Rules, 2017. Hence Option 3 is Correct.

Provisions of Telecommunications (Telecom Cyber Security) Rules, 2024:

Data Access Provisions

• Central Government Authority: The rules empower the government to demand traffic and other data (excluding message content) from telecom entities.
• Infrastructure Mandate: Telecommunication entities may be directed to establish infrastructure to facilitate data collection at designated points.
• Purpose: The data collected is intended to enhance cyber security in the telecom sector.
• Data Sharing: The government can share collected data with Central agencies involved in law enforcement and security activities.

Cyber Security Obligations

• Prohibited Actions:

• • Activities endangering telecom cyber security.
  • Sending fraudulent or harmful messages affecting telecom cyber security.
  • Misusing telecom equipment for fraud, cheating, or impersonation.
• Accountability: Telecom users are held responsible for actions that compromise security.

Penalties for Violations

• Primary Sanctions:

• • Suspension or permanent disconnection of services.
  • Suspension duration: One year, extendable up to three years.
• No Stringent Financial Penalties: The rules currently do not impose severe monetary fines for violations.

Operational Changes for Telecom Entities

• Chief Telecommunication Security Officer (CTSO): Telecom entities are required to appoint a CTSO to oversee cyber security compliance and operations.

Ans: B

Exp:

India has become the second-largest producer of farmed fish globally, with aquaculture playing a key role in food security, employment, and economic growth.

•  However, the sector faces challenges such as disease risks and environmental impacts, prompting the adoption of advanced technologies like Biofloc Technology (BFT) and Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS).

 About Biofloc Technology (BFT): 

• Statement 1 is correct: BFT employs heterotrophic bacteria to convert waste into biomass, which can then be consumed by fish, providing an additional source of nutrients.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: BFT systems require an inbuilt aeration system to maintain dissolved oxygen levels necessary for microbial activity.

• Statement 3 is correct: BFT reduces the need for external chemicals and antibiotics by maintaining water quality and limiting pathogen growth through microbial competition.