Ans: B

Exp:

The Prime Minister will chair the fourth National Conference of Chief Secretaries. The theme of the three-day conference is ‘Promoting Entrepreneurship, Employment & Skilling – Leveraging the Demographic Dividend’.

• Statement 1 is correct: In normal circumstances, the appointment of the CS of a state is the exclusive preserve of the chief minister. 
  • The CS appointment is essentially a transfer order issued by the General Administration Department of the state government in the name of the Governor, but it can be effectively done only after the chief minister has made her choice.  
• Statement 2  is correct: The position of Chief Secretary is not governed by the tenure system. There is no fixed tenure for this post.
• Statement 3  is not correct: In order of precedence, he is below Member of Parliament.
• He advises the Chief Minister in all matters of the cabinet.
• The Chief Secretary is normally assisted directly by senior IAS Officers including the Financial Commissioner & Principal Secretary Coordination.
• Roles and Responsibilities:
  • He Acts as the ex-officio head of the State Civil Services Board, the state cadre of IAS officers & All civil services governed under the state’s rules of business
  • He is responsible for the implementation of government policies & programs at the state level
  • He functions as the central point of coordination for various state departments.

Ans: A

Exp:

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) outlined that the CE20 cryogenic engine flew through in a critical sea level test, a significant breakthrough in propulsion technology and future of the country’s space missions.
• The CE20 cryogenic engine, developed indigenously by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre, has been qualified to operate at a thrust level of 19 tonnes and has successfully powered six LVM3 missions to date.
• The primary function of the CE20 cryogenic engine developed by ISRO is to power the upper stage of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM-3).  Hence, Option ( a ) is correct.
• It incorporates a multi-element igniter designed for in-space restarting, which is vital for ensuring dependable operation in missions like Gaganyaan.

Ans: C

Exp:

• Recently, The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) has granted approval for the National Dope Testing Laboratory as an Athlete Passport Management Unit (APMU) to manage the Athlete Biological Passport (ABP).
• Now, India is part of a group of the 17 APMUs approved by WADA worldwide. India’s APMU would serve the country as well as the anti-doping organizations of neighbouring countries.
• The Athlete Biological Passport (ABP) is an advanced anti-doping tool that monitors an athlete’s biological markers over time. Hence, Option ( c ) is correct.
• By analyzing variations in parameters such as blood and steroid profiles, the ABP helps to ensure fair play in sports and to protect clean athletes.

Ans: C

Exp:

• Switzerland has announced that it will suspend the most favoured nation (MFN) clause in its double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA) with India, starting from January 1, 2025. 
  • This move will double the withholding tax rate on dividends paid to Indian tax residents to 10 per cent from 5 per cent. 
• The MFN clause is a principle found in international treaties, including tax agreements, that ensures equal treatment for all parties involved. 
• Statement 1  is correct:If one country offers favourable tax rates or conditions to another, it must extend those same benefits to all other countries covered by the treaty. 
  • This clause is designed to guarantee that no country is treated less favourably than any other in trade or taxation matters.
• Statement 2  is correct:There is no formal procedure for suspending MFN treatment.
  • India suspended Pakistan’s MFN status in 2019. Pakistan never applied MFN status to India.

Ans: C

Expl: UNESCO has used eDNA to identify over 4,500 species in 21 World Heritage sites, providing valuable data on biodiversity.

About Environmental DNA (eDNA): 

• Environmental DNA refers to genetic material obtained from environmental samples like water, soil, or air, without needing to collect the organism itself. This technique is widely used for biodiversity monitoring and assessing the presence of specific species.
• Option 1 is correct: eDNA is highly effective in biodiversity monitoring and creating species inventories. By analyzing environmental samples (water, soil, or air), eDNA can identify the presence of multiple species within an ecosystem.
• Option 2 is Correct: eDNA can detect non-native invasive species in an ecosystem, even in low densities, which is crucial for early intervention and management. The detection of invasive lionfish at the Belize Barrier Reef using eDNA demonstrates its effectiveness in managing invasive species.
• Option 3 is Incorrect: eDNA is not designed for analyzing the genetic structure of plant crops. This application typically requires direct sampling of the organism and advanced genetic sequencing techniques, such as whole-genome sequencing or molecular marker analysis.
• Option 4 is Correct: eDNA is particularly valuable for detecting rare, elusive, or cryptic species, as it eliminates the need for direct physical capture or observation. It is especially useful in monitoring species that are difficult to locate due to their low populations or secretive nature. eDNA has been used to identify rare species such as the white-spotted guitarfish and Commerson’s dolphin.