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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding royalty rates for critical and strategic minerals:
The Second Schedule of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 currently specifies a royalty rate of 12% of the average sale price (ASP) for minerals that are not specifically listed in the Schedule.
This rate is much lower than global benchmarks.
According to the latest amendment to the act, a uniform royalty rate of 15% is specified for Lithium, Niobium and Rare earth elements.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
Correct
Option (a) is correct
Explanation:
The Centre has approved an amendment of the Second Schedule of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
The amendment specifies the rate of royalty in respect of 3 critical and strategic minerals, namely, Lithium, Niobium and Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
The decision comes after the government removed six minerals, including lithium and niobium, from the list of ‘specified’ atomic minerals.
The specification of new royalty rates by amending the act effectively aligns India’s royalty rates with global benchmarks, and paves the way for commercial exploitation of these minerals through auctions, which can be conducted by the Centre or states.
Statement 1 is correct: Item No. 55 of The Second Schedule of the MMDR Act, 1957, currently specifies a royalty rate of 12% of the average sale price (ASP) for minerals that are not specifically listed in that Schedule.
Statement 2 is not correct: This rate is much higher than global benchmarks.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is decided to specify a reasonable royalty rate of Lithium, Niobium and REE as below:
Lithium – 3% of London Metal Exchange price
Niobium –3% of Average Sale Price (both for primary and secondary sources)
REE- 1% of Average Sale Price of Rare Earth Oxide
Incorrect
Option (a) is correct
Explanation:
The Centre has approved an amendment of the Second Schedule of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
The amendment specifies the rate of royalty in respect of 3 critical and strategic minerals, namely, Lithium, Niobium and Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
The decision comes after the government removed six minerals, including lithium and niobium, from the list of ‘specified’ atomic minerals.
The specification of new royalty rates by amending the act effectively aligns India’s royalty rates with global benchmarks, and paves the way for commercial exploitation of these minerals through auctions, which can be conducted by the Centre or states.
Statement 1 is correct: Item No. 55 of The Second Schedule of the MMDR Act, 1957, currently specifies a royalty rate of 12% of the average sale price (ASP) for minerals that are not specifically listed in that Schedule.
Statement 2 is not correct: This rate is much higher than global benchmarks.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is decided to specify a reasonable royalty rate of Lithium, Niobium and REE as below:
Lithium – 3% of London Metal Exchange price
Niobium –3% of Average Sale Price (both for primary and secondary sources)
REE- 1% of Average Sale Price of Rare Earth Oxide
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act 2021:
The Act requires the opinion of a single Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP) for the abortion of pregnancies with a gestational age of up to 20 weeks.
Opinions of two RMPs are required to terminate pregnancies between the gestational period of 20 and 26 weeks.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
Correct
Option (a) is correct
Explanation:
The Supreme Court recently delivered a split verdict in a case concerning the medical termination of pregnancy of a married woman who was at 26th week of pregnancy.
Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act 2021(MTP), a married woman may end her pregnancy up to 20 weeks if a contraceptive technique or device fails.
Statement 1 is correct: The Act requires the opinion of a single Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP) about the abortion of pregnancies with a gestational age of up to 20 weeks.
Statement 2 is not correct: Opinions of two RMPs are required to terminate pregnancies between the gestational period of 20 and 24 weeks.
Incorrect
Option (a) is correct
Explanation:
The Supreme Court recently delivered a split verdict in a case concerning the medical termination of pregnancy of a married woman who was at 26th week of pregnancy.
Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act 2021(MTP), a married woman may end her pregnancy up to 20 weeks if a contraceptive technique or device fails.
Statement 1 is correct: The Act requires the opinion of a single Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP) about the abortion of pregnancies with a gestational age of up to 20 weeks.
Statement 2 is not correct: Opinions of two RMPs are required to terminate pregnancies between the gestational period of 20 and 24 weeks.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information (Amendment) act 2019:
The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and the Information Commissioners (IC) serve for a fixed tenure.
The salary of the CIC and the ICs is equal to the salary benchmarked with the salary of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and the Election Commissioners respectively.
The CIC and the ICs serve at the pleasure of the government.
How many statement/s given above is/are correct?
Correct
Option (a) is correct
Explanation:
A report card on the performance of information commissions (IC) shows that over 3.2 lakh appeals and complaints were pending as on June 30 this year in 27 ICs.
Statement 1 is not correct: As per the right to Information (amendment) act 2019, the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and the Information Commissioners (IC) serve for a tenure determined by the Central government.
Statement 2 is not correct: The salary of the CIC and the ICs is fixed by the central government.
Statement 3 is correct: The amended act gives the power of appointment of CIC and ICs to the Central government. Thus, the CIC and the ICs serve at the pleasure of the government.
Incorrect
Option (a) is correct
Explanation:
A report card on the performance of information commissions (IC) shows that over 3.2 lakh appeals and complaints were pending as on June 30 this year in 27 ICs.
Statement 1 is not correct: As per the right to Information (amendment) act 2019, the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and the Information Commissioners (IC) serve for a tenure determined by the Central government.
Statement 2 is not correct: The salary of the CIC and the ICs is fixed by the central government.
Statement 3 is correct: The amended act gives the power of appointment of CIC and ICs to the Central government. Thus, the CIC and the ICs serve at the pleasure of the government.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
Which of the statement given below is not correct?
Correct
Option (d) is correct
Explanation:
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) recently registered a case against NewsClick for violation of the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act.
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office.
Statement 1 is correct: The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Statement 2 is correct: The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
Statement 3 is correct: It provides assistance to the Central Vigilance Commission and Lokpal.
Statement 4 is not correct: The National Investigation Agency (NIA)has been constituted after the Mumbai terror attack in 2008 mainly for investigation of incidents of terrorist attacks, funding of terrorism and other terror related crime, whereas the CBI investigates crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism.
Incorrect
Option (d) is correct
Explanation:
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) recently registered a case against NewsClick for violation of the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act.
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office.
Statement 1 is correct: The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Statement 2 is correct: The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
Statement 3 is correct: It provides assistance to the Central Vigilance Commission and Lokpal.
Statement 4 is not correct: The National Investigation Agency (NIA)has been constituted after the Mumbai terror attack in 2008 mainly for investigation of incidents of terrorist attacks, funding of terrorism and other terror related crime, whereas the CBI investigates crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Mera Yuva Bharat:
It is to be launched as a statutory body under the Ministry of Education.
It will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years as well as the adolescents in the age group of 10-19 years.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
Correct
Option (b) is correct
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct:Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports recently approved establishment of an autonomous body Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat).
Statement 2 is correct: It will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy. In case of programme components specifically meant for the adolescents, the beneficiaries will be in the age group of 10-19 years.
Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) will be launched on 31st October, 2023 on National Unity Day.
Incorrect
Option (b) is correct
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct:Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports recently approved establishment of an autonomous body Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat).
Statement 2 is correct: It will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy. In case of programme components specifically meant for the adolescents, the beneficiaries will be in the age group of 10-19 years.
Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) will be launched on 31st October, 2023 on National Unity Day.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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October 12, 2023