Option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• During a Valdai Discussion Club meeting, Russia hinted at the possibility of resuming nuclear weapons testing and potentially exiting the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) treaty that bans such tests.
• Statement 1 is correct: The CTBT bans all nuclear explosions, whether for military or peaceful purposes.
• Statement 2 is correct:   On signing the CTBT, a State automatically becomes a member of the Preparatory Commission for the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO).
• The Preparatory Commission for the CTBTO was established on 19 November 1996 by a Resolution adopted by the Meeting of States Signatories at the United Nations in New York. 
• Statement 3 is correct: The Commission, based in Vienna, Austria, lays the groundwork required and builds up the global verification regime to monitor compliance with the Treaty. 
• To monitor compliance, the CTBT’s unique verification regime is designed to detect any nuclear explosion conducted anywhere on the planet – underground, underwater or in the atmosphere.

Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: FRP is the price at which mills are legally bound to pay to farmers for the cane procured from them.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The payment of FRP across the country is governed by the Sugarcane Control order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 which mandates payment within 14 days of the date of delivery of the cane.
• Statement 3 is correct: It is determined on the recommendation of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). 
• Statement 4 is correct: FRP is based on the Rangarajan Committee report on reorganising the sugarcane industry.

Option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court(SC) mulls having a sign language interpreter during Constitution bench hearings.
• Whenever a matter of law arises that requires a  provision of the Constitution to be interpreted, or there is a “significant legal question”, it is required to be decided by a Bench involving a minimum of five judges of the Supreme Court. 
  • Such a Bench is called the Constitution Bench.
• Constitution Benches have decided some of India’s most significant cases over the years:
• • Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India: In 1977, the seven-judge Bench expanded the scope of Article 21 and ruled that “personal liberty” is “of the widest amplitude” covering “a variety of rights which go to constitute the personal liberty of man”.
  • Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (retd) v. Union of India: In 2017, a nine-judge bench recognised the right to privacy as one guaranteed under the Constitution.
  • Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar: In 1962, the five-judge bench upheld the constitutional validity of Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code which penalises sedition. 

Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) maintained the status quo on interest rates and retained its stance of withdrawing accommodation.
• Statement 1 is correct: An accommodative stance means the central bank expands the money supply to boost economic growth. 
• The central bank, during an accommodative policy period cuts the interest rates. 
• Statement 2 is correct: During hawkish stance, the RBI hikes interest rates to curb money supply and thus reduce the demand. 
  • A hawkish policy indicates tight monetary policy which is followed to keep the inflation low.
• During the calibrated tightening, the rate hike is followed in a calibrated manner. 
  • This means the central bank may not go for a rate increase in every policy meeting but the overall policy stance is tilted towards a rate hike.

Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Recently, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) invited responses to a consultation paper it released on a regulatory mechanism for over-the-top (OTT) communication services.
• Statement 1 is not correct: As of now, there are no specific laws or rules regulating OTT (Over-The-Top) platforms in India. 
• Telecom service providers in India are governed by various laws, including the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, the Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933, and the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
• These laws establish legal frameworks that govern telecom operators’ operations, including requirements such as lawful interception, which do not currently apply to OTT services.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Telecom operators are required to obtain service licenses for offering voice and SMS services.
  • In contrast, OTT communication service providers offer voice calls, messaging, and video call services without holding similar licenses.
• Statement 3 is not correct: OTT services do not make financial contributions to support the expansion of telecom services in the country.
  • Telecom operators are obligated to contribute to the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), which is aimed at promoting telecom services penetration in underserved areas.