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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution are applicable to Indian Citizens only?
Article 15
Article 16
Article 19
Article 29
Article 30
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
At a recent event , the External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar outlined the challenges in providing dual citizenship to Indians settled abroad.
Citizenship in India is regulated by Part II of the Constitution, encompassing Articles 5 to 11.
These articles delineate the criteria for acquiring Indian citizenship at the time of the commencement of the Constitution and subsequently through naturalization, registration, or descent.
The Citizenship Act of 1955 further elaborates on these constitutional provisions, providing the legal framework for citizenship matters in India.
Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship (like Canada). Citizens owe allegiance only to the Union.
There is no separate state citizenship, unlike the USA and Switzerland where they have a system of dual citizenship.
Fundamental rights applicable to Indian Citizens only:
Article 15: Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 16: Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment.
Article 19: Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Articles 29: Protection of interests of minorities
Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
Hence, Option (d) is correct
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
At a recent event , the External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar outlined the challenges in providing dual citizenship to Indians settled abroad.
Citizenship in India is regulated by Part II of the Constitution, encompassing Articles 5 to 11.
These articles delineate the criteria for acquiring Indian citizenship at the time of the commencement of the Constitution and subsequently through naturalization, registration, or descent.
The Citizenship Act of 1955 further elaborates on these constitutional provisions, providing the legal framework for citizenship matters in India.
Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship (like Canada). Citizens owe allegiance only to the Union.
There is no separate state citizenship, unlike the USA and Switzerland where they have a system of dual citizenship.
Fundamental rights applicable to Indian Citizens only:
Article 15: Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 16: Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment.
Article 19: Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Articles 29: Protection of interests of minorities
Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
Hence, Option (d) is correct
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Which of the following is the objective of the ‘GenomeIndia’ project?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
India has completed and made available a year-long compilation of 10,000 human genomes from India, representing 83 population groups, or about 2% of the country’s 4,600 population groups as a database.
GenomeIndia, a visionary national project funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, was launched in January 2020.
Its ambitious goal is to sequence 10,000 genomes from healthy Indian individuals spanning the length and breadth of the country.
The primary aim of GenomeIndia is to construct a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations for India’s population that will better capture our unique diversity. Hence, Option (a) is correct
The GenomeIndia project will create a precious national resource for India’s public health. This effort has the potential to revolutionise healthcare, empowering basic researchers and clinicians, leading to transformative precision interventions
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
India has completed and made available a year-long compilation of 10,000 human genomes from India, representing 83 population groups, or about 2% of the country’s 4,600 population groups as a database.
GenomeIndia, a visionary national project funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, was launched in January 2020.
Its ambitious goal is to sequence 10,000 genomes from healthy Indian individuals spanning the length and breadth of the country.
The primary aim of GenomeIndia is to construct a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations for India’s population that will better capture our unique diversity. Hence, Option (a) is correct
The GenomeIndia project will create a precious national resource for India’s public health. This effort has the potential to revolutionise healthcare, empowering basic researchers and clinicians, leading to transformative precision interventions
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
With reference to ‘Future of Jobs Report 2025’, consider the following statements:
It is a flagship publication of the World Economic Forum (WEF).
Postal service clerks, Bank tellers & related clerks and Data entry clerks have found their place in the top 3 declining job roles as per its findings.
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct:The Future of Jobs Report 2025 has been released by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
It brings together the perspective of over 1,000 leading global employers—collectively representing more than 14 million workers across 22 industry clusters and 55 economies from around the world.
It aims to examine how these macrotrends impact jobs and skills, and the workforce transformation strategies employers plan to embark on in response, across the 2025 to 2030 timeframe.
Big data specialists, FinTech engineers, AI & machine learning specialists are the top 3 job roles that WEF predicts will grow the fastest by 2030.
Statement 2 is correct: Postal service clerks, Bank tellers & related clerks and Data entry clerks have found their place in the top 3 declining job roles as per the survey conducted by the forum.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct:The Future of Jobs Report 2025 has been released by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
It brings together the perspective of over 1,000 leading global employers—collectively representing more than 14 million workers across 22 industry clusters and 55 economies from around the world.
It aims to examine how these macrotrends impact jobs and skills, and the workforce transformation strategies employers plan to embark on in response, across the 2025 to 2030 timeframe.
Big data specialists, FinTech engineers, AI & machine learning specialists are the top 3 job roles that WEF predicts will grow the fastest by 2030.
Statement 2 is correct: Postal service clerks, Bank tellers & related clerks and Data entry clerks have found their place in the top 3 declining job roles as per the survey conducted by the forum.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
With reference to flamingos found in India, consider the following statements:
Lesser flamingos are more widely distributed in India compared to greater flamingos.
Under the IUCN classification, both greater and lesser flamingos Lesser flamingos are classified as “endangered”.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
The ‘Flamingo Festival 2025’ is all set to be conducted at Sullurpeta in Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh from January 18 to 20.
Statement 1 is Incorrect:Greater flamingos are widespread across most parts of India, whereas lesser flamingos are largely restricted to western India.
Statement 2 is Incorrect:Greater Flamingo (Phoenicopterus roseus):
Most widespread and the largest flamingo species. It is found in Africa, the Indian subcontinent, the Middle East, and southern Europe.
It is found almost all over India (except the high-altitude Himalayas, East and NE India).
Greater flamingos are the state bird of Gujarat.
Conservation Status for Greater flamingos:
IUCN → Least Concern
CITES → Appendix II
Lesser Flamingo (Phoeniconaias minor):
Smallest species of flamingo.
They are restricted largely to western India’s brackish water places like Gujarat, Rajasthan and Mumbai.
Conservation Status for Lesser flamingos:
IUCN → Near Threatened
CITES → Appendix II
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
The ‘Flamingo Festival 2025’ is all set to be conducted at Sullurpeta in Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh from January 18 to 20.
Statement 1 is Incorrect:Greater flamingos are widespread across most parts of India, whereas lesser flamingos are largely restricted to western India.
Statement 2 is Incorrect:Greater Flamingo (Phoenicopterus roseus):
Most widespread and the largest flamingo species. It is found in Africa, the Indian subcontinent, the Middle East, and southern Europe.
It is found almost all over India (except the high-altitude Himalayas, East and NE India).
Greater flamingos are the state bird of Gujarat.
Conservation Status for Greater flamingos:
IUCN → Least Concern
CITES → Appendix II
Lesser Flamingo (Phoeniconaias minor):
Smallest species of flamingo.
They are restricted largely to western India’s brackish water places like Gujarat, Rajasthan and Mumbai.
Conservation Status for Lesser flamingos:
IUCN → Near Threatened
CITES → Appendix II
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
With reference to the “International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)”, consider the following statements:
It is the only United Nations organization focused on biodiversity conservation.
It was instrumental in the establishment of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
The Global Invasive Species Database is managed by the IUCN.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
Recently, a study published in Nature Journal revealed that 25% of 23,496 freshwater species, including decapod crustaceans, fishes, and odonates, are threatened with extinction. This equates to 4,294 species identified as at high risk, as per the IUCN Red List.
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is not the only United Nations organization focused on biodiversity conservation, but it is a leading organization in this field.
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), and UNESCO are United Nations organizations that work on biodiversity conservation.
The IUCN is a non-profit organization that works with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Statement 2 is Correct: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) was instrumental in the establishment of the following global initiatives:
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): The IUCN provided technical and policy advice during the drafting and development of the CBD. The CBD was negotiated at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands: The IUCN was fundamental to the creation of the Ramsar Convention in 1971. The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty that provides a framework for the conservation of wetlands.
The World Heritage Convention: The IUCN was fundamental to the creation of the World Heritage Convention in 1972.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES): The IUCN was fundamental to the creation of the CITES in 1974.
The IUCN has also been involved in the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement 3 is Correct: The Global Invasive Species Database (GISD) is managed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG).
The ISSG is a group of experts that work to address invasive species issues.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
Recently, a study published in Nature Journal revealed that 25% of 23,496 freshwater species, including decapod crustaceans, fishes, and odonates, are threatened with extinction. This equates to 4,294 species identified as at high risk, as per the IUCN Red List.
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is not the only United Nations organization focused on biodiversity conservation, but it is a leading organization in this field.
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), and UNESCO are United Nations organizations that work on biodiversity conservation.
The IUCN is a non-profit organization that works with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Statement 2 is Correct: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) was instrumental in the establishment of the following global initiatives:
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): The IUCN provided technical and policy advice during the drafting and development of the CBD. The CBD was negotiated at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands: The IUCN was fundamental to the creation of the Ramsar Convention in 1971. The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty that provides a framework for the conservation of wetlands.
The World Heritage Convention: The IUCN was fundamental to the creation of the World Heritage Convention in 1972.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES): The IUCN was fundamental to the creation of the CITES in 1974.
The IUCN has also been involved in the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement 3 is Correct: The Global Invasive Species Database (GISD) is managed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG).
The ISSG is a group of experts that work to address invasive species issues.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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