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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following activities :
Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance
Monitoring of precipitation
Tracking the migration of animals
In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
India, Russia set to sign USD 4-billion deal for advanced radar system Voronezh.
It will strengthen India’s missile detection and air defence capabilities, enhancing surveillance range and supporting the nation’s drive for self-reliance in defence manufacturing and technology.
Radar stands for “radio detection and ranging”. Radar systems use radio waves to detect, locate, and track targets
Radar has many applications, including:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Radars are not used for detecting narcotics. Other technologies, such as X-rays, millimeter-wave scanners, or chemical sensors, are utilized for this purpose.
Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for surveillance and reconnaissance to detect and track objects such as aircraft, ships, and vehicles.
Statement 3 is correct: Weather radars are specifically designed to monitor precipitation, including rainfall, snowfall, and storms.
Statement 4 is correct: Radars are used in ecological studies to track the movement of birds, bats, and other flying animals during migration.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
India, Russia set to sign USD 4-billion deal for advanced radar system Voronezh.
It will strengthen India’s missile detection and air defence capabilities, enhancing surveillance range and supporting the nation’s drive for self-reliance in defence manufacturing and technology.
Radar stands for “radio detection and ranging”. Radar systems use radio waves to detect, locate, and track targets
Radar has many applications, including:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Radars are not used for detecting narcotics. Other technologies, such as X-rays, millimeter-wave scanners, or chemical sensors, are utilized for this purpose.
Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for surveillance and reconnaissance to detect and track objects such as aircraft, ships, and vehicles.
Statement 3 is correct: Weather radars are specifically designed to monitor precipitation, including rainfall, snowfall, and storms.
Statement 4 is correct: Radars are used in ecological studies to track the movement of birds, bats, and other flying animals during migration.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Which of the following statements regarding the impeachment of judges in India is/are correct?
A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed by the President on the grounds of “proved misbehaviour or incapacity” after a successful impeachment process.
The motion of removal must be supported by a special majority of the total membership of the House and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting.
The legislature is allowed to discuss allegations of misconduct of judges in contexts other than removal motions.
The Supreme Court has established an in-house procedure allowing judges facing serious allegations to take voluntary retirement, avoiding public impeachment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Ans: b
Exp:
Impeachment is a process of removing a judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court from his or her office on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity as mentioned in Article 124(4) and Article 218 of the Constitution. The concept and procedure of impeachment of judges are laid down in the Constitution of India and the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Procedure of impeachment of judges :
Initiation: The process begins with a signed motion by 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha, which is submitted to the Speaker or Chairman respectively, as provided under the Judges (Inquiry) Act of 1968.
Constitution of Inquiry Committee: Upon admittance of the motion, an inquiry committee is formed consisting of a Supreme Court judge, a High Court Chief Justice, and an eminent jurist.
Procedure: According to Article 124(4), a judge of the Supreme Court (or any High Court) can be removed from office only “by an order of the President
passed after an address by each House of Parliament
supported by a Special majority of the total membership of that House and
by a majority of not less than two-third of the members of the House present and voting
has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Grounds of Impeachment: “Proven misbehaviour” or “incapacity” are the only two grounds for removal of a judge of the constitutional court. Hence Statement 1 Is correct
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution prohibits the legislature from discussing allegations of judicial misconduct in contexts other than removal motions.
Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme Court’s in-house procedure provides a mechanism for judges to take voluntary retirement in cases of serious allegations, avoiding impeachment.
Incorrect
Ans: b
Exp:
Impeachment is a process of removing a judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court from his or her office on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity as mentioned in Article 124(4) and Article 218 of the Constitution. The concept and procedure of impeachment of judges are laid down in the Constitution of India and the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Procedure of impeachment of judges :
Initiation: The process begins with a signed motion by 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha, which is submitted to the Speaker or Chairman respectively, as provided under the Judges (Inquiry) Act of 1968.
Constitution of Inquiry Committee: Upon admittance of the motion, an inquiry committee is formed consisting of a Supreme Court judge, a High Court Chief Justice, and an eminent jurist.
Procedure: According to Article 124(4), a judge of the Supreme Court (or any High Court) can be removed from office only “by an order of the President
passed after an address by each House of Parliament
supported by a Special majority of the total membership of that House and
by a majority of not less than two-third of the members of the House present and voting
has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Grounds of Impeachment: “Proven misbehaviour” or “incapacity” are the only two grounds for removal of a judge of the constitutional court. Hence Statement 1 Is correct
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution prohibits the legislature from discussing allegations of judicial misconduct in contexts other than removal motions.
Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme Court’s in-house procedure provides a mechanism for judges to take voluntary retirement in cases of serious allegations, avoiding impeachment.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
Which of the following is a major recommendation of the Gadgil Report for the Western Ghats?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Veteran ecologist Madhav Gadgil has been named one of the six ‘Champions of the Earth’ for 2024 by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
The annual award, the UN’s highest environmental honour, recognizes trailblazers at the forefront of efforts to protect people and the planet.
In 2010, the Union Environment Ministry constituted the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), which is headed by ecologist Dr Madhav Gadgil.
Key Recommendation of Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP):
Entire Western Ghats to be declared an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) Hence option c
Three Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ 1, 2, 3)→ Based on environmental sensitivity:
ESZ 1→ Most ecologically sensitive, with strict restrictions
ESZ 2 & 3→ Moderate to less restrictive areas
Bans following activities in ESZ 1:
Mining and quarrying
New thermal power plants & hydropower projects
Large-scale wind energy projects
Prohibition of ESZ: Genetically modified crops should not be allowed, use of plastic bags be prohibited, Special Economic Zones should not be permitted, new hill stations should not be allowed, etc.
Governance Approach→ Advocated for a bottom-to-top approach (starting from Gram Sabhas).
Western Ghats Ecology Authority (WGEA):
To be established as a statutory authority under MoEF&CC
Powers under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
The report was seen as environmentally focused but out of sync with ground realities
K Kasturirangan Committee, 2013 on Western Ghats: Reduced Ecologically Sensitive Area→ Designated 37% of the Western Ghats as ESA.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Veteran ecologist Madhav Gadgil has been named one of the six ‘Champions of the Earth’ for 2024 by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
The annual award, the UN’s highest environmental honour, recognizes trailblazers at the forefront of efforts to protect people and the planet.
In 2010, the Union Environment Ministry constituted the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), which is headed by ecologist Dr Madhav Gadgil.
Key Recommendation of Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP):
Entire Western Ghats to be declared an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) Hence option c
Three Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ 1, 2, 3)→ Based on environmental sensitivity:
ESZ 1→ Most ecologically sensitive, with strict restrictions
ESZ 2 & 3→ Moderate to less restrictive areas
Bans following activities in ESZ 1:
Mining and quarrying
New thermal power plants & hydropower projects
Large-scale wind energy projects
Prohibition of ESZ: Genetically modified crops should not be allowed, use of plastic bags be prohibited, Special Economic Zones should not be permitted, new hill stations should not be allowed, etc.
Governance Approach→ Advocated for a bottom-to-top approach (starting from Gram Sabhas).
Western Ghats Ecology Authority (WGEA):
To be established as a statutory authority under MoEF&CC
Powers under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
The report was seen as environmentally focused but out of sync with ground realities
K Kasturirangan Committee, 2013 on Western Ghats: Reduced Ecologically Sensitive Area→ Designated 37% of the Western Ghats as ESA.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
A notifiable disease — a disease that is legally required to be reported to the government by both private and public hospitals.
Infections that are likely to cause an outbreak, lead to deaths, and those that need to be investigated quickly to take appropriate public health measures, are declared as notifiable diseases.
The list of notifiable diseases differs from state to state and the Union Government is responsible to notify disease as ”Notified Disease” only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
The Union Health Ministry has urged states to make snakebites a notifiable disease.
About Notifiable Disease:
A ‘notifiable disease’, a disease that is legally required to be reported to the government by both private and public hospitals.
Usually, infections that are likely to cause an outbreak, lead to deaths, and those that need to be investigated quickly to take appropriate public health measures, are declared as notifiable diseases, Hence statement 2 is correct.
While the list of notifiable diseases differs from state to state and state governments are responsible for bringing out the notification most of them consider infections such as tuberculosis, HIV, cholera, malaria, dengue, and hepatitis among others to be notifiable. Hence Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Snakebites as Disease:
Snakebites are a major public health challenge in the country, Snakebites can lead to acute medical emergencies that require immediate care.
They can cause severe paralysis that can prevent breathing, can lead to a fatal haemorrhage, and damage different tissues.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
The Union Health Ministry has urged states to make snakebites a notifiable disease.
About Notifiable Disease:
A ‘notifiable disease’, a disease that is legally required to be reported to the government by both private and public hospitals.
Usually, infections that are likely to cause an outbreak, lead to deaths, and those that need to be investigated quickly to take appropriate public health measures, are declared as notifiable diseases, Hence statement 2 is correct.
While the list of notifiable diseases differs from state to state and state governments are responsible for bringing out the notification most of them consider infections such as tuberculosis, HIV, cholera, malaria, dengue, and hepatitis among others to be notifiable. Hence Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Snakebites as Disease:
Snakebites are a major public health challenge in the country, Snakebites can lead to acute medical emergencies that require immediate care.
They can cause severe paralysis that can prevent breathing, can lead to a fatal haemorrhage, and damage different tissues.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
With reference to the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement proposal at WTO , Consider the following statements:
The IFD claims to improve the global investment climate and foster international cooperation to facilitate foreign direct investment (FDI) flows among WTO members.
The IFD was first mooted in 2017 by India and other developing countries with sovereign wealth funds are party to that pact.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
The China-led Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) agreement has gained the support of 128 countries at the World Trade Organization (WTO).
However, India, along with South Africa, Namibia, and Turkey, will continue to oppose the initiative ahead of the WTO General Council meeting in Geneva on December 16-17.
About the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement:
The Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement provides global benchmarks to support the efforts of WTO members.
Objective: The IFD claims to improve the global investment climate and foster international cooperation to facilitate foreign direct investment (FDI) flows among WTO members, particularly benefiting developing and least-developed countries. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Initiative: The IFD was first mooted in 2017 by China and other countries that depend heavily on Chinese investments, and countries with sovereign wealth funds are party to that pact.
India’s Position: India believes many nations supporting the IFD are under the wrong impression that it will benefit them.
“For developing countries, this agreement will impact their policy space. While more members may join, India will continue to oppose it,” due to its potential to undermine the policy space of weaker nations.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
The China-led Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) agreement has gained the support of 128 countries at the World Trade Organization (WTO).
However, India, along with South Africa, Namibia, and Turkey, will continue to oppose the initiative ahead of the WTO General Council meeting in Geneva on December 16-17.
About the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement:
The Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement provides global benchmarks to support the efforts of WTO members.
Objective: The IFD claims to improve the global investment climate and foster international cooperation to facilitate foreign direct investment (FDI) flows among WTO members, particularly benefiting developing and least-developed countries. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Initiative: The IFD was first mooted in 2017 by China and other countries that depend heavily on Chinese investments, and countries with sovereign wealth funds are party to that pact.
India’s Position: India believes many nations supporting the IFD are under the wrong impression that it will benefit them.
“For developing countries, this agreement will impact their policy space. While more members may join, India will continue to oppose it,” due to its potential to undermine the policy space of weaker nations.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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