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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
With reference to the recent Supreme Court ruling on property demolitions, consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court has mandated that demolitions should proceed only after providing a personal notice and time for appeal to the affected individuals.
Any officials found to be in violation of the Court’s demolition guidelines will be held personally responsible for the restitution of the demolished property.
The Supreme Court has ruled that its guidelines on demolitions will be applicable to all unauthorized structures, including those on public roads and footpaths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a recent judgment, the Supreme Court of India criticized state authorities for demolishing homes with bulldozers, a measure often employed against those accused of crimes before trial.
The Supreme Court condemned this practice as a display of “might is right,” noting that such actions often violate due process and the principles of natural justice.
Justice Gavai said the executive could not transform itself into a judge to find an accused guilty without trial and deliver a “collective punishment” to him and his family. This would be a violation of the ‘rule of law’, which was a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has indeed mandated that authorities must issue a personal notice and allow time for appeal before proceeding with any demolition.
Occupants must receive a minimum 15-day notice, detailing unauthorized construction violations and reasons for demolition
Statement 2 is correct:The Court has specified that officials who violate these guidelines will be held personally responsible for restoring the demolished property at their own expense.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The Court’s guidelines exclude unauthorized structures in certain public areas, such as roads, footpaths, and areas abutting railway lines.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a recent judgment, the Supreme Court of India criticized state authorities for demolishing homes with bulldozers, a measure often employed against those accused of crimes before trial.
The Supreme Court condemned this practice as a display of “might is right,” noting that such actions often violate due process and the principles of natural justice.
Justice Gavai said the executive could not transform itself into a judge to find an accused guilty without trial and deliver a “collective punishment” to him and his family. This would be a violation of the ‘rule of law’, which was a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has indeed mandated that authorities must issue a personal notice and allow time for appeal before proceeding with any demolition.
Occupants must receive a minimum 15-day notice, detailing unauthorized construction violations and reasons for demolition
Statement 2 is correct:The Court has specified that officials who violate these guidelines will be held personally responsible for restoring the demolished property at their own expense.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The Court’s guidelines exclude unauthorized structures in certain public areas, such as roads, footpaths, and areas abutting railway lines.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
With reference to the conduct of civil servants in India, consider the following statements:
The Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964 prohibit civil servants from participating in any form of commercial endorsement or advertisement.
Civil servants are allowed to publicly endorse products or services only if it is in the interest of public welfare and approved by the government.
The Central Vigilance Commission is the primary authority responsible for enforcing conduct rules for all civil servants in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Union Consumer Affairs Ministry has issued guidelines prohibiting coaching institutes from publishing misleading advertisements that make false claims on courses offered, their duration, faculty qualifications, fees and refund policies.
Union Consumer Affairs Secretary written to the Personnel Affairs Ministry against serving officers endorsing coaching centers or their courses after being selected into the civil services.
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964, civil servants are prohibited from engaging in any form of commercial endorsement or advertisement, including promoting private services or products, to maintain neutrality and integrity in public service.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Civil servants are generally not allowed to endorse any product or service, even for public welfare purposes, unless specifically authorized by the government under exceptional circumstances.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) does not enforce conduct rules directly; it primarily oversees vigilance and anti-corruption activities. The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) is primarily responsible for enforcing conduct rules for civil servants.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Union Consumer Affairs Ministry has issued guidelines prohibiting coaching institutes from publishing misleading advertisements that make false claims on courses offered, their duration, faculty qualifications, fees and refund policies.
Union Consumer Affairs Secretary written to the Personnel Affairs Ministry against serving officers endorsing coaching centers or their courses after being selected into the civil services.
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964, civil servants are prohibited from engaging in any form of commercial endorsement or advertisement, including promoting private services or products, to maintain neutrality and integrity in public service.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Civil servants are generally not allowed to endorse any product or service, even for public welfare purposes, unless specifically authorized by the government under exceptional circumstances.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) does not enforce conduct rules directly; it primarily oversees vigilance and anti-corruption activities. The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) is primarily responsible for enforcing conduct rules for civil servants.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
With reference to India’s renewable energy sector, consider the following statements:
As per the ‘Panchamrit’ goals announced by India, the country aims to reach 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity by 2030.
India’s renewable energy targets include specific capacities for solar, wind, and nuclear energy.
Large hydro projects are classified as part of India’s renewable energy portfolio by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has released its latest data, highlighting substantial growth in India’s renewable energy sector from October 2023 to October 2024.
India’s total renewable energy installed capacity increased by a staggering 24.2 GW (13.5%) in a year, reaching 203.18 GW in October 2024 from 178.98 GW in October 2023. Including nuclear energy, the total non-fossil fuel capacity rose to 211.36 GW in 2024, compared to 186.46 GW in 2023.
Statement 1 is correct: As part of the ‘Panchamrit’ goals announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at COP26 in Glasgow, India aims to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity by 2030.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While India has ambitious targets for renewable energy overall, specific targets for individual sources like nuclear are generally discussed separately.
The primary targets focus on solar and wind energy under the renewable energy umbrella managed by MNRE, while nuclear energy is usually not included in MNRE’s specific renewable energy targets.
Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) includes large hydro projects as part of India’s renewable energy capacity, broadening the category to reflect diverse sources in its renewable energy portfolio.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has released its latest data, highlighting substantial growth in India’s renewable energy sector from October 2023 to October 2024.
India’s total renewable energy installed capacity increased by a staggering 24.2 GW (13.5%) in a year, reaching 203.18 GW in October 2024 from 178.98 GW in October 2023. Including nuclear energy, the total non-fossil fuel capacity rose to 211.36 GW in 2024, compared to 186.46 GW in 2023.
Statement 1 is correct: As part of the ‘Panchamrit’ goals announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at COP26 in Glasgow, India aims to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity by 2030.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While India has ambitious targets for renewable energy overall, specific targets for individual sources like nuclear are generally discussed separately.
The primary targets focus on solar and wind energy under the renewable energy umbrella managed by MNRE, while nuclear energy is usually not included in MNRE’s specific renewable energy targets.
Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) includes large hydro projects as part of India’s renewable energy capacity, broadening the category to reflect diverse sources in its renewable energy portfolio.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
With reference to the term “sea ranching,” consider the following statements:
Sea ranching involves the release of hatchery-bred juvenile fish into natural water bodies to replenish fish stocks.
It is primarily used to increase fish populations in open water environments rather than enclosed aquaculture systems.
Sea ranching requires any long-term habitat modification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Kerala State Fisheries Department has initiated a large-scale sea ranching project off Vizhinjam, releasing 20,000 pompano fingerlings into the ocean to support marine biodiversity and sustainable fishing practices.
This is part of an effort under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) to restore marine resources with the help of artificial reefs and increase fish stocks along the Thiruvananthapuram coast.
Statement 1 is correct: Sea ranching typically involves the release of hatchery-bred or captive-bred juvenile fish (often called fingerlings) into natural aquatic ecosystems to restore or boost fish stocks.
Statement 2 is correct: Sea ranching is generally conducted in open water environments, such as oceans, seas, or rivers, rather than in controlled aquaculture systems.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While sea ranching itself does not always require habitat modification, it can sometimes involve activities like artificial reef construction to provide suitable habitats and increase survival rates for the released species.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Kerala State Fisheries Department has initiated a large-scale sea ranching project off Vizhinjam, releasing 20,000 pompano fingerlings into the ocean to support marine biodiversity and sustainable fishing practices.
This is part of an effort under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) to restore marine resources with the help of artificial reefs and increase fish stocks along the Thiruvananthapuram coast.
Statement 1 is correct: Sea ranching typically involves the release of hatchery-bred or captive-bred juvenile fish (often called fingerlings) into natural aquatic ecosystems to restore or boost fish stocks.
Statement 2 is correct: Sea ranching is generally conducted in open water environments, such as oceans, seas, or rivers, rather than in controlled aquaculture systems.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While sea ranching itself does not always require habitat modification, it can sometimes involve activities like artificial reef construction to provide suitable habitats and increase survival rates for the released species.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
With respect to the identification and regulation of Systemically Important Banks in India, which of the following criteria are used by the Reserve Bank of India to classify banks as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)?
Size of the bank as a percentage of GDP.
Level of cross-jurisdictional activities.
Degree of interconnectedness within the financial system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) retained the State Bank of India, HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
All three banks continue to be under the same bucketing structure as in the 2023 list of D-SIBs.
About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are perceived as banks that are ‘Too Big To Fail (TBTF)’ and their continued functioning is crucial for the uninterrupted availability of essential banking services to the real economy.
Selection and Assessment Process: The RBI follows a two-step process to classify D-SIBs:
Sample Selection: Only banks with significant size (over 2% of GDP) are assessed, as smaller banks are less systemically important.
Systemic Importance Assessment: Selected banks are assessed based on multiple indicators, including the bank’s size (measured as a percentage of GDP), cross-jurisdictional activities, interconnectedness within the financial system, lack of substitutability, and complexity, etc. to calculate a composite systemic importance score. Hence Options 1,2 and 3 all correct.
Capital Requirements for D-SIBs
To strengthen their financial buffers, D-SIBs are required to maintain an additional capital buffer, known as the common equity tier 1 (CET1), which is added on top of the standard regulatory requirements. The additional capital requirements are based on their bucket classification:
SBI: 0.80% of Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs)
HDFC Bank: 0.40% of RWAs
ICICI Bank: 0.20% of RWAs
Global Systemically Important Banks (G-SIBs):
Global SIBs (G-SIBs), identified by the Financial Stability Board (FSB) and the Basel Committee, include major banks such as:
JP Morgan Chase
Bank of America
HSBC
Agricultural Bank of China
Barclays
G-SIBs are subject to additional regulatory requirements, similar to D-SIBs, to safeguard global financial stability.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) retained the State Bank of India, HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
All three banks continue to be under the same bucketing structure as in the 2023 list of D-SIBs.
About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are perceived as banks that are ‘Too Big To Fail (TBTF)’ and their continued functioning is crucial for the uninterrupted availability of essential banking services to the real economy.
Selection and Assessment Process: The RBI follows a two-step process to classify D-SIBs:
Sample Selection: Only banks with significant size (over 2% of GDP) are assessed, as smaller banks are less systemically important.
Systemic Importance Assessment: Selected banks are assessed based on multiple indicators, including the bank’s size (measured as a percentage of GDP), cross-jurisdictional activities, interconnectedness within the financial system, lack of substitutability, and complexity, etc. to calculate a composite systemic importance score. Hence Options 1,2 and 3 all correct.
Capital Requirements for D-SIBs
To strengthen their financial buffers, D-SIBs are required to maintain an additional capital buffer, known as the common equity tier 1 (CET1), which is added on top of the standard regulatory requirements. The additional capital requirements are based on their bucket classification:
SBI: 0.80% of Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs)
HDFC Bank: 0.40% of RWAs
ICICI Bank: 0.20% of RWAs
Global Systemically Important Banks (G-SIBs):
Global SIBs (G-SIBs), identified by the Financial Stability Board (FSB) and the Basel Committee, include major banks such as:
JP Morgan Chase
Bank of America
HSBC
Agricultural Bank of China
Barclays
G-SIBs are subject to additional regulatory requirements, similar to D-SIBs, to safeguard global financial stability.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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