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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
With reference of Indian Economy, consider the following statements:
The fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP has been achieved only once since 2004.
From 2026-27, the fiscal deficit target has been set at 5% of GDP by amending FRBM Act 2004.
India’s Debt to GDP ratio has steadily increased for the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
For two decades, India’s fiscal discipline has been governed by deficit targets. Now it plans to manage the deficit in relation to borrowing targets, as many other countries are doing.
Fiscal Reduction and Management (FRBM) Act 2003:
It aims to establish financial discipline, improve the management of public funds, and reduce fiscal deficits.
Target:
The act requires reducing the fiscal deficit by 3% of the GDP by March 31, 2023.
Statement 1 is Correct: Since the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act came into effect in 2004, this target has been achieved only once.
Debt of central Govt: 40% of the GDP by 2024-25.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: From 2026-27, the fiscal deficit will be managed not with a fixed target, but in a way that ensures a declining debt-to-GDP ratio.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: India’s Debt to GDP ratio has not continuously increased for the last 5 years.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
For two decades, India’s fiscal discipline has been governed by deficit targets. Now it plans to manage the deficit in relation to borrowing targets, as many other countries are doing.
Fiscal Reduction and Management (FRBM) Act 2003:
It aims to establish financial discipline, improve the management of public funds, and reduce fiscal deficits.
Target:
The act requires reducing the fiscal deficit by 3% of the GDP by March 31, 2023.
Statement 1 is Correct: Since the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act came into effect in 2004, this target has been achieved only once.
Debt of central Govt: 40% of the GDP by 2024-25.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: From 2026-27, the fiscal deficit will be managed not with a fixed target, but in a way that ensures a declining debt-to-GDP ratio.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: India’s Debt to GDP ratio has not continuously increased for the last 5 years.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Polio:
Polioviruses are enteroviruses that are transmitted primarily by the faecal-oral route.
Vaccine-derived polio virus can originate from the strain used in the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
A two-year-old child in Tikrikilla, Meghalaya has been infected with vaccine-derived polio.
About Polio:
It can invade the central nervous system and as it multiplies, destroy the nerve cells that activate muscles, causing irreversible paralysis in hours.
Polio typically affects children aged 5 years or younger.
It can result in muscle weakness, permanent disability, and even death.
Statement 1 is Correct: Polioviruses are enteroviruses that are transmitted primarily by the faecal-oral route.
Three types of wild poliovirus (WPV): Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3.
Type 2 Wild Poliovirus: It was declared eradicated in September 2015. The last detection was in India, 1999.
Type 3 Wild Poliovirus: It was declared eradicated in October 2019. It was last detected in November 2012.
Only type 1 wild poliovirus remains.
Vaccine-Derived Polioviruses (VDPVs):
In rare instances, the vaccine-virus may be able to circulate over time and mutate in communities with insufficient immunity or immunocompromised individuals.
Statement 2 is Correct: Vaccine-derived polio virus originates from the strain used in the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV).
These mutated OPV strains can cause polio disease. They are called poliovirus variants or vaccine-derived polioviruses (VDPVs).
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
A two-year-old child in Tikrikilla, Meghalaya has been infected with vaccine-derived polio.
About Polio:
It can invade the central nervous system and as it multiplies, destroy the nerve cells that activate muscles, causing irreversible paralysis in hours.
Polio typically affects children aged 5 years or younger.
It can result in muscle weakness, permanent disability, and even death.
Statement 1 is Correct: Polioviruses are enteroviruses that are transmitted primarily by the faecal-oral route.
Three types of wild poliovirus (WPV): Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3.
Type 2 Wild Poliovirus: It was declared eradicated in September 2015. The last detection was in India, 1999.
Type 3 Wild Poliovirus: It was declared eradicated in October 2019. It was last detected in November 2012.
Only type 1 wild poliovirus remains.
Vaccine-Derived Polioviruses (VDPVs):
In rare instances, the vaccine-virus may be able to circulate over time and mutate in communities with insufficient immunity or immunocompromised individuals.
Statement 2 is Correct: Vaccine-derived polio virus originates from the strain used in the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV).
These mutated OPV strains can cause polio disease. They are called poliovirus variants or vaccine-derived polioviruses (VDPVs).
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
With reference to Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
The Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
The Governor always exercises his functions on aid and advice of the Council of ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
Article 156. Term of office of Governor :
(1) The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
(2) The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
Statement 1 is correct: (3) Subject to the foregoing provisions of this Article, a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Article 163. Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor:
Statement 2 is incorrect: (1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.
(2) If any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
Article 156. Term of office of Governor :
(1) The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
(2) The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
Statement 1 is correct: (3) Subject to the foregoing provisions of this Article, a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Article 163. Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor:
Statement 2 is incorrect: (1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.
(2) If any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
With reference of Genome Editing Techniques, consider the following statements:
CRISPR-associated protein 9 (Cas9) is the DNA-targeting component of the system that is engineered to attach to certain DNA bases via complementary base-pairing.
Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) is the nuclease component that cuts the DNA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
Recently, ICAR, Penn State team makes tool small enough to edit plant genomes
About Genome Editing Techniques:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR): CRISPR is the DNA-targeting component of the system, and it is made up of an RNA molecule, or guide, that is engineered to attach to certain DNA bases via complementary base-pairing.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: CRISPR-associated protein 9 (Cas9) is the nuclease component that cuts the DNA.
The CRISPR-Cas9 genetic scissors were discovered by Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna, who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2020.
Transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs): Transcription activator-like effector (TALE) domains make up the DNA-binding domain of TALENs.
Zinc-finger nucleases (ZFNs): ZFNs are fusions between a custom-designed Cys2-His2 zinc-finger protein and the cleavage domain of the FokI restriction endonuclease. FokI cleavage domain, which cuts DNA within a five- to seven-bp spacer sequence that separates two flanking zinc-finger binding sites.
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
Recently, ICAR, Penn State team makes tool small enough to edit plant genomes
About Genome Editing Techniques:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR): CRISPR is the DNA-targeting component of the system, and it is made up of an RNA molecule, or guide, that is engineered to attach to certain DNA bases via complementary base-pairing.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: CRISPR-associated protein 9 (Cas9) is the nuclease component that cuts the DNA.
The CRISPR-Cas9 genetic scissors were discovered by Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna, who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2020.
Transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs): Transcription activator-like effector (TALE) domains make up the DNA-binding domain of TALENs.
Zinc-finger nucleases (ZFNs): ZFNs are fusions between a custom-designed Cys2-His2 zinc-finger protein and the cleavage domain of the FokI restriction endonuclease. FokI cleavage domain, which cuts DNA within a five- to seven-bp spacer sequence that separates two flanking zinc-finger binding sites.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
With reference to Census, consider the following statements:
Census 2011 was the 7th National Census of the country after Independence.
No entry in Census book shall be admissible as evidence in any civil proceeding.
The population census is a Concurrent subject under Article 246 of India Constitution.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
India’s census, an annual decadal exercise, is likely to kick off in September 2024.
About Census:
Census is the basis for reviewing the country’s progress in the past decade, monitoring the ongoing schemes of the government and planning for the future.
Statement 1 is Correct: Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of the country since 1872 and the 7th after Independence.
It was conducted in two phases which are:
House Listing or Housing Census
Population Enumeration
Census process:
Questions and forms: Census data is taken by visiting each and every household and gathering particulars by asking questions and filling up census forms.
Statement 2 is Correct: As per the Section 15 of the Census Act, 1948, no person shall have a right to inspect any book, register or record made by a census-officer in the discharge of his duty as such, or any schedule delivered under section 10
And notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, no entry in any such book, register, record or schedule shall be admissible as evidence in any civil proceeding whatsoever or in any criminal proceeding other than a prosecution under this Act or any other law for any act or omission which constitutes an offence under this Act.
Transportation to data processing centers: The forms are transported to data processing centers located at 15 cities across the country.
Intelligent Character Recognition Software (ICR): This technology came in India in Census 2001 and has become the benchmark for censuses all around the globe.
Scanning and extraction of data: This involves the scanning of the census forms at high speed and extracting the data automatically using computer software
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The population census is a Union subject under Article 246 of India Constitution.
It is listed at serial number 69 of the seventh schedule of the constitution.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
India’s census, an annual decadal exercise, is likely to kick off in September 2024.
About Census:
Census is the basis for reviewing the country’s progress in the past decade, monitoring the ongoing schemes of the government and planning for the future.
Statement 1 is Correct: Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of the country since 1872 and the 7th after Independence.
It was conducted in two phases which are:
House Listing or Housing Census
Population Enumeration
Census process:
Questions and forms: Census data is taken by visiting each and every household and gathering particulars by asking questions and filling up census forms.
Statement 2 is Correct: As per the Section 15 of the Census Act, 1948, no person shall have a right to inspect any book, register or record made by a census-officer in the discharge of his duty as such, or any schedule delivered under section 10
And notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, no entry in any such book, register, record or schedule shall be admissible as evidence in any civil proceeding whatsoever or in any criminal proceeding other than a prosecution under this Act or any other law for any act or omission which constitutes an offence under this Act.
Transportation to data processing centers: The forms are transported to data processing centers located at 15 cities across the country.
Intelligent Character Recognition Software (ICR): This technology came in India in Census 2001 and has become the benchmark for censuses all around the globe.
Scanning and extraction of data: This involves the scanning of the census forms at high speed and extracting the data automatically using computer software
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The population census is a Union subject under Article 246 of India Constitution.
It is listed at serial number 69 of the seventh schedule of the constitution.
August 22, 2024