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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
India is the largest producer of coffee in the World.
Coffee plants require a hot and humid climate with temperature varying between 15°C and 28 °C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm.
Kerala is the largest producer of the total coffee production in India.
The headquarters of the Coffee Board of India is in Kottayam, Kerala.
How many of the above given statements are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, a 150-year-old coffee plant can be found in a coffee plantation on the church grounds of the British-built CSI in Pallikunnu near Kuttikkanam. The Church of South India (CSI), located in Pallikunnu, near Kuttikkanam in Idukki district, has a coffee plantation on its grounds.
The coffee plants were likely planted by the British during the early years of the plantation industry in Peerumade over 150 years ago.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Brazil is the world’s largest coffee producer, accounting for about 39% of the global coffee supply. Brazil produces about one-third of the world’s coffee.
Statement 2 is correct: Coffee is a tropical plantation crop. It requires a hot and humid climate with temperature varying between 15°C and 28 °C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm.
It does not tolerate frost, snowfall, high temperatures above 30°C and strong sunshine and is generally grown under shady trees.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Karnataka is the largest producer of the total coffee production in India and produces more than 70% of the total coffee produced in the country.
Kodagu, Chikmagalur and Hassan are the main coffee producing regions in Karnataka.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Coffee Board is a statutory organization constituted under Section (4) of the Coffee Act, 1942 and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. It is headquartered in Bengaluru.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, a 150-year-old coffee plant can be found in a coffee plantation on the church grounds of the British-built CSI in Pallikunnu near Kuttikkanam. The Church of South India (CSI), located in Pallikunnu, near Kuttikkanam in Idukki district, has a coffee plantation on its grounds.
The coffee plants were likely planted by the British during the early years of the plantation industry in Peerumade over 150 years ago.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Brazil is the world’s largest coffee producer, accounting for about 39% of the global coffee supply. Brazil produces about one-third of the world’s coffee.
Statement 2 is correct: Coffee is a tropical plantation crop. It requires a hot and humid climate with temperature varying between 15°C and 28 °C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm.
It does not tolerate frost, snowfall, high temperatures above 30°C and strong sunshine and is generally grown under shady trees.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Karnataka is the largest producer of the total coffee production in India and produces more than 70% of the total coffee produced in the country.
Kodagu, Chikmagalur and Hassan are the main coffee producing regions in Karnataka.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Coffee Board is a statutory organization constituted under Section (4) of the Coffee Act, 1942 and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. It is headquartered in Bengaluru.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
M- Sand or Manufactured Sand, has similar properties to natural sand, however requires high water for construction projects.
Sand is a ‘Minor Mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Rajasthan govt announces policy for the manufactured sand industry. The policy called M-Sand 2024 will help sustainable development by ensuring environmental protection, fostering economic growth and supporting communities.
Statement 1 is incorrect: M-Sand, or Manufactured Sand, is an alternative to natural river sand used in construction. It is produced by crushing rocks or quarry stones to obtain sand particles of consistent size and shape.
It has similar properties to natural sand, making it suitable for various construction purposes. It is cost-effective, readily available, and reduces the need for mining natural sand.
It also requires less water for construction projects as it does not need to be washed before use.
Statement 2 is correct:Sand is classified as a ‘minor mineral’ under Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulations) Act, 1957.
The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has issued “Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016” to promote scientific sand mining and environmentally friendly management practices.
Statement 3 is correct:State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. They can take measures to regulate and control the mining activities of minor minerals within their respective states.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Rajasthan govt announces policy for the manufactured sand industry. The policy called M-Sand 2024 will help sustainable development by ensuring environmental protection, fostering economic growth and supporting communities.
Statement 1 is incorrect: M-Sand, or Manufactured Sand, is an alternative to natural river sand used in construction. It is produced by crushing rocks or quarry stones to obtain sand particles of consistent size and shape.
It has similar properties to natural sand, making it suitable for various construction purposes. It is cost-effective, readily available, and reduces the need for mining natural sand.
It also requires less water for construction projects as it does not need to be washed before use.
Statement 2 is correct:Sand is classified as a ‘minor mineral’ under Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulations) Act, 1957.
The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has issued “Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016” to promote scientific sand mining and environmentally friendly management practices.
Statement 3 is correct:State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. They can take measures to regulate and control the mining activities of minor minerals within their respective states.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
Padma Shri Tulsi Gowda is known as the “Mother of Trees”.
Indian Forest Management Standard, a part of the National Working Plan Code – 2023, supports the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme.
The Ministry of Environment and Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) sets annual afforestation targets for states and union territories under the Twenty Point Programme.
How many of the above given statements arecorrect?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023 shows that the country’s Forest and Tree cover now spans 827,357 square kilometers, covering 25.17% of the nation’s total land area. This includes 715,343 square kilometers (21.76%) of forest cover and 112,014 square kilometers (3.41%) of tree cover. This progress reflects India’s successful efforts to balance development with environmental conservation.
The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), is a biennial assessment of the country’s forest resources using satellite data and field information. The first report was published in 1987, and the ISFR 2023 marks the 18th edition.
Statement 1 is correct: Laws, schemes, and acts alone cannot drive the change that the world needs; it takes dedicated individuals to truly make a difference. Padma Shri Tulsi Gowda, also known as the “Mother of Trees,” dedicated over 60 years to planting and nurturing lakhs of trees in Karnataka, transforming barren land into lush forests.
Her work has left a lasting legacy in environmental conservation. Tulsi’s passing serves as a poignant reminder of the urgent need for more individuals like her—those who selflessly dedicate their lives to nurturing and protecting the Earth, ensuring a greener, more sustainable future for generations to come.
Statement 2 is correct: Indian Forest Management Standard: A part of the National Working Plan Code – 2023, this standard establishes criteria and frameworks for monitoring sustainable forest management and supports the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme, particularly benefiting small-scale timber producers.
Joint Forest Management and Eco Development Committees: In line with the National Forest Policy of 1988, the Ministry has promoted community involvement through Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs) for better forest and wildlife protection, ensuring local participation in management and conservation activities.
Statement 3 is correct: Afforestation Targets under the Twenty-Point Programme: The Ministry of Environment and Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) sets annual afforestation targets for States/UTs, utilizing a mix of Central Government schemes, State Government plans, and efforts by NGOs, private organizations, and civil society.
Legal Framework for Forest and Wildlife Protection:
In India, the protection and management of forest and wildlife resources are governed by a strong legal framework designed to ensure conservation and sustainable use.
Key laws include the Indian Forest Act, 1927, the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980, and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, aimed at protecting wildlife species and their habitats, including the creation of protected areas like national parks and sanctuaries.
Additionally, State Forest Acts cater to forest management specific to each state, while Tree Preservation Acts and Rules focus on protecting trees in both urban and rural areas.
The enforcement of these laws is primarily the responsibility of State Governments and Union Territories, which take necessary actions to ensure the protection and management of forests and wildlife as per these legal provisions.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023 shows that the country’s Forest and Tree cover now spans 827,357 square kilometers, covering 25.17% of the nation’s total land area. This includes 715,343 square kilometers (21.76%) of forest cover and 112,014 square kilometers (3.41%) of tree cover. This progress reflects India’s successful efforts to balance development with environmental conservation.
The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), is a biennial assessment of the country’s forest resources using satellite data and field information. The first report was published in 1987, and the ISFR 2023 marks the 18th edition.
Statement 1 is correct: Laws, schemes, and acts alone cannot drive the change that the world needs; it takes dedicated individuals to truly make a difference. Padma Shri Tulsi Gowda, also known as the “Mother of Trees,” dedicated over 60 years to planting and nurturing lakhs of trees in Karnataka, transforming barren land into lush forests.
Her work has left a lasting legacy in environmental conservation. Tulsi’s passing serves as a poignant reminder of the urgent need for more individuals like her—those who selflessly dedicate their lives to nurturing and protecting the Earth, ensuring a greener, more sustainable future for generations to come.
Statement 2 is correct: Indian Forest Management Standard: A part of the National Working Plan Code – 2023, this standard establishes criteria and frameworks for monitoring sustainable forest management and supports the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme, particularly benefiting small-scale timber producers.
Joint Forest Management and Eco Development Committees: In line with the National Forest Policy of 1988, the Ministry has promoted community involvement through Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs) for better forest and wildlife protection, ensuring local participation in management and conservation activities.
Statement 3 is correct: Afforestation Targets under the Twenty-Point Programme: The Ministry of Environment and Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) sets annual afforestation targets for States/UTs, utilizing a mix of Central Government schemes, State Government plans, and efforts by NGOs, private organizations, and civil society.
Legal Framework for Forest and Wildlife Protection:
In India, the protection and management of forest and wildlife resources are governed by a strong legal framework designed to ensure conservation and sustainable use.
Key laws include the Indian Forest Act, 1927, the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980, and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, aimed at protecting wildlife species and their habitats, including the creation of protected areas like national parks and sanctuaries.
Additionally, State Forest Acts cater to forest management specific to each state, while Tree Preservation Acts and Rules focus on protecting trees in both urban and rural areas.
The enforcement of these laws is primarily the responsibility of State Governments and Union Territories, which take necessary actions to ensure the protection and management of forests and wildlife as per these legal provisions.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Fishing Cat:
In India, fishing cats are mainly found in the Chambal Ravines.
India’s first Fishing Cat Collaring Project is carried out under the aegis of the Wildlife Institute of India-Dehradun.
The Fishing Cat is listed as a “Vulnerable” species under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
With the second fishing cats census expected to be completed within a few weeks, the Wildlife Institute of India-Dehradun is preparing to execute India’s first Fishing Cat Collaring Project at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary where the endangered species is said to be thriving.
About Fishing Cat:
One of the largest of the 28 species of small cats and is about twice the size of a typical house cat.
Habitat → Live primarily in wetland areas, swamps, and marshy areas around oxbow lakes, reed beds, tidal creeks, and mangrove forests.
Global distribution → Mainly in Southeast Asia comprising India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Mekong Delta of Vietnam and Thailand, Pakistan, East Cambodia and northern Himalayan foothills.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, fishing cats are mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, on the foothills of the Himalayas along the Ganga and Brahmaputra river valleys and in the Western Ghats.
Statement 2 is correct: India’s first Fishing Cat Collaring Project is being carried out by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in Dehradun.
The ongoing fishing cat census is part of India’s first Fishing Cat Collaring Project carried out under the aegis of the Wildlife Institute of India-Dehradun.
The three-year collaring project aims to study the species’ home range, behaviour, habitat ecology, feeding habits, and space use.
Statement 3 is correct:Conservation Status:
IUCN → Vulnerable
CITES → Appendix II
Wildlife Protection Act 1972 → Schedule I
The major threats to their survival include habitat loss due to agricultural expansion, aquaculture, and urbanization, as well as pollution of water bodies.
Other Features
Adept swimmer and enters water frequently to dive and catch the fish.
It is a nocturnal animal which preys on frogs, crustaceans, snakes, birds, and scavenges on carcasses of larger animals.
It is capable of breeding all-round the year.
Uniqueness → Muscular tail is shorter than a domestic cat’s and is ringed with 6 or 7 incomplete dark bands which are distinct from leopard.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
With the second fishing cats census expected to be completed within a few weeks, the Wildlife Institute of India-Dehradun is preparing to execute India’s first Fishing Cat Collaring Project at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary where the endangered species is said to be thriving.
About Fishing Cat:
One of the largest of the 28 species of small cats and is about twice the size of a typical house cat.
Habitat → Live primarily in wetland areas, swamps, and marshy areas around oxbow lakes, reed beds, tidal creeks, and mangrove forests.
Global distribution → Mainly in Southeast Asia comprising India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Mekong Delta of Vietnam and Thailand, Pakistan, East Cambodia and northern Himalayan foothills.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, fishing cats are mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, on the foothills of the Himalayas along the Ganga and Brahmaputra river valleys and in the Western Ghats.
Statement 2 is correct: India’s first Fishing Cat Collaring Project is being carried out by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in Dehradun.
The ongoing fishing cat census is part of India’s first Fishing Cat Collaring Project carried out under the aegis of the Wildlife Institute of India-Dehradun.
The three-year collaring project aims to study the species’ home range, behaviour, habitat ecology, feeding habits, and space use.
Statement 3 is correct:Conservation Status:
IUCN → Vulnerable
CITES → Appendix II
Wildlife Protection Act 1972 → Schedule I
The major threats to their survival include habitat loss due to agricultural expansion, aquaculture, and urbanization, as well as pollution of water bodies.
Other Features
Adept swimmer and enters water frequently to dive and catch the fish.
It is a nocturnal animal which preys on frogs, crustaceans, snakes, birds, and scavenges on carcasses of larger animals.
It is capable of breeding all-round the year.
Uniqueness → Muscular tail is shorter than a domestic cat’s and is ringed with 6 or 7 incomplete dark bands which are distinct from leopard.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
With reference to the “treasury bills”, consider the following statements:
Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
The Treasury Bill Market is included in capital markets.
Which of the statements given above is/arecorrect?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
The government is set to borrow Rs 3.94 lakh crore from the market via treasury bills (T-bills), the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said in a press release. On Friday, the central bank released the calendar for the auction of T-bills.
The central government is set to borrow Rs 1.68 lakh crore via 91-day T-bills, Rs 1.28 lakh crore via 182-day T-bills and Rs 98,000 crore via 364-day T-bills.
Statement 1 is correct: Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Treasury Bill Market is part of the money market, not the capital market.
Treasury Bill Market: A part of the money market, which deals with short-term funding needs. Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government, typically with a maturity of less than one year.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
The government is set to borrow Rs 3.94 lakh crore from the market via treasury bills (T-bills), the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said in a press release. On Friday, the central bank released the calendar for the auction of T-bills.
The central government is set to borrow Rs 1.68 lakh crore via 91-day T-bills, Rs 1.28 lakh crore via 182-day T-bills and Rs 98,000 crore via 364-day T-bills.
Statement 1 is correct: Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Treasury Bill Market is part of the money market, not the capital market.
Treasury Bill Market: A part of the money market, which deals with short-term funding needs. Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government, typically with a maturity of less than one year.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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