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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding “Human Metapneumovirus (HMPV)”:
HMPV is a viral pathogen that causes respiratory infections in people of all age groups.
Transmission occurs primarily through respiratory droplets from infected individuals or contact with contaminated surfaces.
Serum Institute of India, Pune developed the first indigenous vaccine for HMPV.
How many of the above given statements arecorrect?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
Human Metapneumovirus (HMPV) is a globally recognised respiratory virus that recently gained attention after its outbreak was reported in China.
Two cases of HMPV were recently reported in Karnataka as part of routine surveillance by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
Statement 1 is Correct: HMPV is a viral pathogen that causes respiratory infections in people of all age groups. First discovered in 2001, it belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family and is closely related to Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV).
This virus is known to cause illnesses ranging from mild respiratory discomfort to severe complications, especially in vulnerable populations such as infants, older adults and individuals with weakened immune systems. It is prevalent globally and tends to peak during late winter and early spring in temperate regions, although it circulates year-round in some areas.
Statement 2 is Correct: HMPV spreads through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing, as well as by touching contaminated surfaces or coming into direct contact with infected individuals.
The symptoms of HMPV vary depending on the individual’s age, general health and immune response. Mild cases typically present with a runny nose, sore throat, cough and fever, resembling a common cold. Moderate symptoms may include persistent cough, wheezing and fatigue.
In severe cases, especially in infants, older adults, and those with chronic illnesses, HMPV can lead to complications such as bronchitis, bronchiolitis or pneumonia.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Currently, there is no specific antiviral medication or vaccine available for HMPV. Treatment is supportive and depends on the severity of the infection.
Diagnosing HMPV based solely on symptoms can be challenging, as it mimics other respiratory infections like RSV and influenza. Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR) is the gold standard diagnostic tool for detecting HMPV RNA, while antigen detection assays offer quicker results.
In India, surveillance programmes like the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) regularly test for respiratory viruses, including HMPV, as part of their efforts to monitor and control respiratory illnesses.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
Human Metapneumovirus (HMPV) is a globally recognised respiratory virus that recently gained attention after its outbreak was reported in China.
Two cases of HMPV were recently reported in Karnataka as part of routine surveillance by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
Statement 1 is Correct: HMPV is a viral pathogen that causes respiratory infections in people of all age groups. First discovered in 2001, it belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family and is closely related to Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV).
This virus is known to cause illnesses ranging from mild respiratory discomfort to severe complications, especially in vulnerable populations such as infants, older adults and individuals with weakened immune systems. It is prevalent globally and tends to peak during late winter and early spring in temperate regions, although it circulates year-round in some areas.
Statement 2 is Correct: HMPV spreads through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing, as well as by touching contaminated surfaces or coming into direct contact with infected individuals.
The symptoms of HMPV vary depending on the individual’s age, general health and immune response. Mild cases typically present with a runny nose, sore throat, cough and fever, resembling a common cold. Moderate symptoms may include persistent cough, wheezing and fatigue.
In severe cases, especially in infants, older adults, and those with chronic illnesses, HMPV can lead to complications such as bronchitis, bronchiolitis or pneumonia.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Currently, there is no specific antiviral medication or vaccine available for HMPV. Treatment is supportive and depends on the severity of the infection.
Diagnosing HMPV based solely on symptoms can be challenging, as it mimics other respiratory infections like RSV and influenza. Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR) is the gold standard diagnostic tool for detecting HMPV RNA, while antigen detection assays offer quicker results.
In India, surveillance programmes like the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) regularly test for respiratory viruses, including HMPV, as part of their efforts to monitor and control respiratory illnesses.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: The Net-Zero Banking Alliance (NZBA) includes both private and public financial institutions from around the world, regardless of the economic context in which they operate.
Statement-2: The NZBA aims to support only green financing, prioritizing investments in renewable energy and sustainable infrastructure.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
The Net-Zero Banking Alliance — a group dedicated to helping lenders reduce their carbon footprints — has in quick succession been abandoned by Goldman Sachs Group Inc.,Wells Fargo & Co., Citigroup Inc., Bank of America Corp. and Morgan Stanley. JPMorgan Chase & Co., the largest US bank, looks to be next in line.
Statement-1 is Correct: The NZBA is a global initiative that includes both private and public financial institutions from various countries, irrespective of their economic status.
While the NZBA does require banks to transition to net-zero emissions, it is designed to be flexible and accounts for different contexts, particularly recognizing the challenges faced by financial institutions in emerging markets. These institutions are allowed to make gradual progress based on their circumstances.
Statement-2 is Incorrect: While the NZBA does emphasize the importance of financing green projects and supporting the transition to sustainable energy, it does not solely focus on green financing. It encourages a gradual alignment of the entire portfolio with net-zero targets.
Net-Zero Banking Alliance:
A global group of leading banks committed to aligning their lending, investment, and capital markets activities with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
Bank-led and UN-convened: Established through collaboration between banks and the United Nations.
NZBA acts as the climate accelerator for the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) Finance Initiative’s Principles for Responsible Banking (PRB).
Currently, no Indian bank is a member of the NZBA.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
The Net-Zero Banking Alliance — a group dedicated to helping lenders reduce their carbon footprints — has in quick succession been abandoned by Goldman Sachs Group Inc.,Wells Fargo & Co., Citigroup Inc., Bank of America Corp. and Morgan Stanley. JPMorgan Chase & Co., the largest US bank, looks to be next in line.
Statement-1 is Correct: The NZBA is a global initiative that includes both private and public financial institutions from various countries, irrespective of their economic status.
While the NZBA does require banks to transition to net-zero emissions, it is designed to be flexible and accounts for different contexts, particularly recognizing the challenges faced by financial institutions in emerging markets. These institutions are allowed to make gradual progress based on their circumstances.
Statement-2 is Incorrect: While the NZBA does emphasize the importance of financing green projects and supporting the transition to sustainable energy, it does not solely focus on green financing. It encourages a gradual alignment of the entire portfolio with net-zero targets.
Net-Zero Banking Alliance:
A global group of leading banks committed to aligning their lending, investment, and capital markets activities with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
Bank-led and UN-convened: Established through collaboration between banks and the United Nations.
NZBA acts as the climate accelerator for the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) Finance Initiative’s Principles for Responsible Banking (PRB).
Currently, no Indian bank is a member of the NZBA.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
With reference to the “123 Agreement” that was recently often in the news, consider the following statements:
It is a bilateral agreement that facilitates civilian nuclear cooperation between the United States and a foreign country.
It automatically allows a country to access nuclear technology for military purposes without further restrictions.
Which of the statements given above is/arecorrect?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
The United States will soon remove Indian scientific and nuclear entities from the “restricted lists” in order to “fully realise” the potential of the India-U.S. nuclear deal that was signed between Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and President George W.
Statement 1 is Correct: The U.S. 123 Agreement is a key framework for civilian nuclear cooperation between the U.S. and other countries (like India), allowing the transfer of nuclear technology and materials for peaceful purposes.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: The 123 Agreement does not automatically allow the transfer of nuclear technology for military purposes.
In fact, it specifically limits the use of technology to peaceful purposes and mandates safeguards to prevent nuclear weapons development.
The 123 Agreement ensures that any nuclear technology transferred is exclusively used for peaceful purposes and prohibits diversion to nuclear weapons development.
For the agreement to come into effect, it requires approval by the U.S. Congress, and the International Atomic Energy Agency’s (IAEA’s) approval of safeguards in the recipient country is a critical condition.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
The United States will soon remove Indian scientific and nuclear entities from the “restricted lists” in order to “fully realise” the potential of the India-U.S. nuclear deal that was signed between Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and President George W.
Statement 1 is Correct: The U.S. 123 Agreement is a key framework for civilian nuclear cooperation between the U.S. and other countries (like India), allowing the transfer of nuclear technology and materials for peaceful purposes.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: The 123 Agreement does not automatically allow the transfer of nuclear technology for military purposes.
In fact, it specifically limits the use of technology to peaceful purposes and mandates safeguards to prevent nuclear weapons development.
The 123 Agreement ensures that any nuclear technology transferred is exclusively used for peaceful purposes and prohibits diversion to nuclear weapons development.
For the agreement to come into effect, it requires approval by the U.S. Congress, and the International Atomic Energy Agency’s (IAEA’s) approval of safeguards in the recipient country is a critical condition.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to the “Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report, 2024”:
The average stage of groundwater extraction for India stands at 60.47 %.
The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
The percentage of Over Exploited Assessment units have increased from 2017 to 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
Recently, the Union Minister of Jal Shakti released the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report for the entire country for the year 2024.
The assessment was carried out jointly by Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) and States/UTs, which can be used for taking suitable interventions by various stake-holders.
Statement 1 is Correct: As per the assessment, the total annual groundwater recharge in the country has been assessed as 446.90 Billion Cubic Meter (BCM). Keeping an allocation for natural discharge, the annual extractable ground water resource has been assessed as 406.19 BCM. The annual groundwater extraction for all uses is 245.64 BCM. The average stage of groundwater extraction for the country stands at 60.47 %.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate, control development and management of ground water resources.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The percentage of Over Exploited Assessment units have declined from 17.24 % in 2017 to 11.13 % in 2024 (The percentage of OE Assessment units was 11.23% in 2023).
Other Key Highlights:
Total Annual GW Recharge has increased (15 BCM) substantially and Extraction has declined (3 BCM) in 2024 from 2017 assessment. There is slight reduction in recharge and increase in extraction in the present assessment year compared to the preceding year.
Recharge from Tanks, Ponds and Water Control System (WCS) has shown a consistent increase in the last five assessments. In the year 2024, it has increased by 0.39 BCM w.r.t. 2023.
With respect to the year 2017, there is an increase of 11.36 BCM in recharge from Tanks, Ponds & WCS (from 13.98 BCM in 2017 to 25.34 BCM in 2024).
The percentage of Assessment Units under Safe Category have increased from 62.6% in 2017 to 73.4 % in 2024 (The percentage of Safe assessment units was 73.14 % in 2023).
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
Recently, the Union Minister of Jal Shakti released the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report for the entire country for the year 2024.
The assessment was carried out jointly by Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) and States/UTs, which can be used for taking suitable interventions by various stake-holders.
Statement 1 is Correct: As per the assessment, the total annual groundwater recharge in the country has been assessed as 446.90 Billion Cubic Meter (BCM). Keeping an allocation for natural discharge, the annual extractable ground water resource has been assessed as 406.19 BCM. The annual groundwater extraction for all uses is 245.64 BCM. The average stage of groundwater extraction for the country stands at 60.47 %.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate, control development and management of ground water resources.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The percentage of Over Exploited Assessment units have declined from 17.24 % in 2017 to 11.13 % in 2024 (The percentage of OE Assessment units was 11.23% in 2023).
Other Key Highlights:
Total Annual GW Recharge has increased (15 BCM) substantially and Extraction has declined (3 BCM) in 2024 from 2017 assessment. There is slight reduction in recharge and increase in extraction in the present assessment year compared to the preceding year.
Recharge from Tanks, Ponds and Water Control System (WCS) has shown a consistent increase in the last five assessments. In the year 2024, it has increased by 0.39 BCM w.r.t. 2023.
With respect to the year 2017, there is an increase of 11.36 BCM in recharge from Tanks, Ponds & WCS (from 13.98 BCM in 2017 to 25.34 BCM in 2024).
The percentage of Assessment Units under Safe Category have increased from 62.6% in 2017 to 73.4 % in 2024 (The percentage of Safe assessment units was 73.14 % in 2023).
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
Regarding the National Anthem, consider the following statements:
Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English in Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh.
Prevention of Insults to National Honours Act, 1971 prohibits the violation or insult to any national symbols which include the national flag, the Constitution of India, the national anthem, and the map of India.
Any person who intentionally refuses or prevents the singing of the Indian National Anthem would be punished with imprisonment up to the term of 3 years or with fine or with both.
How many of the above given statements arecorrect?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Recently, the Tamil Nadu Governor left the Legislative Assembly without delivering the customary address on the opening day of the first session of the year, complaining that the national anthem was not played before his scheduled address. Last year too, he had refused to read out his address citing similar reasons.
Statement 1 is Correct: Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English in Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh.
Prevention of Insults to National Honours Act, 1971:
Statement 2 is Correct: Prohibits the violation or insult to any national symbols which include the national flag, the Constitution of India, the national anthem, and the map of India.
Statement 3 is Correct: Any person who intentionally refuses or prevents the singing of the Indian National Anthem or if causes any disturbance in the assembly engaged in such singing, would be punished with imprisonment up to the term of 3 years or with fine or with both.
Code of Conduct for The National Anthem
Whenever the National Anthem is sung or played, the audience shall stand in the attention.
Do not indulge in any type of indiscriminate singing or playing of the Anthem.
When the National Anthem is performed as part of a newsreel or documentary, the audience is not required to stand up.
The full version of the anthem should be played in 52 seconds and a short version consisting of the first and last lines of the National Anthem should be played in about 20 seconds.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Recently, the Tamil Nadu Governor left the Legislative Assembly without delivering the customary address on the opening day of the first session of the year, complaining that the national anthem was not played before his scheduled address. Last year too, he had refused to read out his address citing similar reasons.
Statement 1 is Correct: Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English in Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh.
Prevention of Insults to National Honours Act, 1971:
Statement 2 is Correct: Prohibits the violation or insult to any national symbols which include the national flag, the Constitution of India, the national anthem, and the map of India.
Statement 3 is Correct: Any person who intentionally refuses or prevents the singing of the Indian National Anthem or if causes any disturbance in the assembly engaged in such singing, would be punished with imprisonment up to the term of 3 years or with fine or with both.
Code of Conduct for The National Anthem
Whenever the National Anthem is sung or played, the audience shall stand in the attention.
Do not indulge in any type of indiscriminate singing or playing of the Anthem.
When the National Anthem is performed as part of a newsreel or documentary, the audience is not required to stand up.
The full version of the anthem should be played in 52 seconds and a short version consisting of the first and last lines of the National Anthem should be played in about 20 seconds.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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