Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims, Past Years’ Questions And Trends

Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims: UPSC Prelims is set to be conducted on May 25, 2025. Candidates appearing for UPSC Prelims 2025 must prepare effectively for the Polity subject as it is one of the most significant and top subjects. It includes various crucial topics, including fundamental principles of governance, Indian political system structure, constitutional provisions, and much more.

Although it is an easy-to-score subject, basic constitutional and Indian political knowledge is a must to score well. Therefore, to practice such questions, candidates must explore Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims and trends.

Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims with Explained Solutions

To prepare well for Indian Polity in the UPSC Prelims, it’s important to practice the previous year’s questions (PYQs) after completing each topic. Solving these questions helps in understanding the concepts better and knowing how they are asked in the exam. There are various topics, such as topics Article 32, Fundamental Rights, or Constitutional Amendments, that are frequently asked with current affairs.

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Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims
Particulars	Link
Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims with Answers	UPSC Prelims Polity PYQs
Other Subject Questions in UPSC Prelims (GS Paper I)	UPSC Prelims PYQs

Also Read: UPSC Prelims Previous Years Papers And Solutions

Year-wise UPSC Prelims Polity Questions Trend (2013–2024)

Understanding how many questions are asked from Polity in UPSC Prelims helps candidates plan their preparation better. Over the past 12 years, the number of Polity questions has shown a moderate but consistent trend. It usually ranges between 11 to 22 questions. Polity remains one of the core subjects and often reflects contemporary constitutional and governance-related issues.

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims (2013–2024)
Year	Number of Polity Questions
2013	16
2014	14
2015	13
2016	7
2017	22
2018	13
2019	15
2020	17
2021	11
2022	15
2023	15
2024	18

UPSC Prelims Polity Questions 2024

In 2024, around 18 questions were asked from the Polity subject. It was second highest after 2017 in which around 22 questions were asked from Polity. Here are the UPSC CSE Prelims PYQ of Polity that candidates can explore for preparation purposes:

Question 1

How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

Question 2

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992, amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

Konkani
Manipuri
Nepali
Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

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Question 3

Consider the following pairs:

Party	Leader
Bhartiya Jana Sangh	Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Socialist Party	C. Rajagopalachari
Congress for Democracy	Jagjivan Ram
Swatantra Party	Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Question 4

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
Emergency provisions are given in fu Part XVIII of the Constitution.
Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 5

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Question 6

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(d) Article 21

Question 7

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee.
Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to the unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 8

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

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Question 9

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

Addition
Variation
Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 10

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Question 11

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

Governor of the Constituent State
Chief Minister of the Constituent State
Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Question 13

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Question 14

Consider the following statements:

It is the Governor of the State who recognises and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 15

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister, lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.

At the Union level, no demand for a grant be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Question 16

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration.

He/she shall not preside.
He/She shall not have the right to speak.
He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 17

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Question 18

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India, who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2023

In the UPSC Prelims 2023, around 17 questions were asked from the Indian Polity section. This once again proves how significant Polity is in the UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions mostly focused on constitutional provisions, fundamental rights, parliamentary procedures, and recent legal developments.

Question 1

By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act

(b) The Pitt’s India Act

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Question 2

In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

Question 3

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Question 4

Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

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Question 5

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Question 6

Consider the following organisations/bodies in India:

The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Question 7

Consider the following statements:

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/ her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Question 8

With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill; it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Question 9

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Question 10

Consider the following:

Demographic performance
Forest and ecology
Governance reforms
Stable government
Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Question 11

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security.
To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Question 12

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Action	The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorised use of official police or military uniforms	The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or interfering with a police/military officer	The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others	The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Question 13

Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.

Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Question 14

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 15

Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002, the confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Question 16

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Question 17

With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements: (88)

Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

So, if you’re preparing for UPSC Prelims 2025, you can refer to these Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims for mastering Indian Polity.

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Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims FAQs

Around 12 to 15 questions are asked every year from Indian Polity.

Yes, Laxmikanth covers most of the syllabus, but complements it with current affairs.

Not directly, but concepts are often repeated with different framing.

Focus on Fundamental Rights, Parliament, Constitutional Bodies, and the President/Governor.

Yes, questions often link current issues with constitutional provisions or acts.

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Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims, Past Years’ Questions and Trends

Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims with Explained Solutions

Year-wise UPSC Prelims Polity Questions Trend (2013–2024)

UPSC Prelims Polity Questions 2024

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2023

Polity PYQ UPSC Prelims FAQs

How many Polity questions are asked in UPSC Prelims?

Is Laxmikanth enough for Polity preparation?

Do Polity questions repeat in UPSC?

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