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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
With reference to End to End Encryption (E2EE), consider the following statements:
End-to-end encryption secures messages before they’re sent and decrypts them only after arriving at a recipient’s device.
E2EE doesn’t hide or encrypt the metadata.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: End-to-end encryption secures messages before they’re sent and decrypts them only after arriving at a recipient’s device.
This is different from encryption-in-transit, when messages may be decrypted at the server before going to a final destination.
There are several messaging apps that use end-to-end encryption, including Signal, Telegram, and WhatsApp.
Statement 2 is correct: The end-to-end encryption (E2EE) can prevent anyone (including, in general, the government and law enforcement) from reading the content of the messages; however, it doesn’t hide or encrypt the metadata, i.e. it’s possible to determine who did the sender send messages to, and when, even if the content is encrypted.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: End-to-end encryption secures messages before they’re sent and decrypts them only after arriving at a recipient’s device.
This is different from encryption-in-transit, when messages may be decrypted at the server before going to a final destination.
There are several messaging apps that use end-to-end encryption, including Signal, Telegram, and WhatsApp.
Statement 2 is correct: The end-to-end encryption (E2EE) can prevent anyone (including, in general, the government and law enforcement) from reading the content of the messages; however, it doesn’t hide or encrypt the metadata, i.e. it’s possible to determine who did the sender send messages to, and when, even if the content is encrypted.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
With reference to the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI), consider the following statements:
CEPI is a branch of the World Health Organisation.
Serum Institute of India (SII) has joined the CEPI global network.
The 100 Days Mission is related to the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovation (CEPI).
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) was founded in Davos by the governments of Norway and India, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, Wellcome, and the World Economic Forum. CEPI is an innovative global partnership between public, private, philanthropic, and civil society organisations which works to accelerate the development of vaccines against emerging infectious diseases and enable equitable access to these vaccines for people during outbreaks.
It is not a branch of the World Health Organization (WHO) but works closely with WHO and other organisations to achieve its goals.
Statement 2 is correct: The world’s largest vaccine manufacturer, the Serum Institute of India Pvt. Ltd (SII) has joined the growing CEPI network of vaccine producers in the Global South to support more rapid, agile, and equitable responses to future public health disease outbreaks.
SII becomes the fourth member of CEPI’s global manufacturing network. Other members include Aspen in South Africa, Institut Pasteur de Dakar in Senegal, and BioFarma in Indonesia.
Statement 3 is correct: 100 Days Mission- CEPI’s vision is for the world to be able to respond to the next Disease X with a new vaccine in 100 days. Achieving that goal could defuse the threat of a pathogen with pandemic potential.
CEPI’s What Will it Take report outlines 5 areas of innovation needed to make delivery of pandemic vaccines within 100 days a reality.
Disease X is the name given by scientists and the World Health Organization to an unknown pathogen that could emerge in future and cause a serious international epidemic or pandemic. In February 2018, Disease X was included in the WHO’s updated Blueprint list of diseases for which investing in research and development should be an international priority. It is also a priority for CEPI’s research and development investments.
Incorrect
Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) was founded in Davos by the governments of Norway and India, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, Wellcome, and the World Economic Forum. CEPI is an innovative global partnership between public, private, philanthropic, and civil society organisations which works to accelerate the development of vaccines against emerging infectious diseases and enable equitable access to these vaccines for people during outbreaks.
It is not a branch of the World Health Organization (WHO) but works closely with WHO and other organisations to achieve its goals.
Statement 2 is correct: The world’s largest vaccine manufacturer, the Serum Institute of India Pvt. Ltd (SII) has joined the growing CEPI network of vaccine producers in the Global South to support more rapid, agile, and equitable responses to future public health disease outbreaks.
SII becomes the fourth member of CEPI’s global manufacturing network. Other members include Aspen in South Africa, Institut Pasteur de Dakar in Senegal, and BioFarma in Indonesia.
Statement 3 is correct: 100 Days Mission- CEPI’s vision is for the world to be able to respond to the next Disease X with a new vaccine in 100 days. Achieving that goal could defuse the threat of a pathogen with pandemic potential.
CEPI’s What Will it Take report outlines 5 areas of innovation needed to make delivery of pandemic vaccines within 100 days a reality.
Disease X is the name given by scientists and the World Health Organization to an unknown pathogen that could emerge in future and cause a serious international epidemic or pandemic. In February 2018, Disease X was included in the WHO’s updated Blueprint list of diseases for which investing in research and development should be an international priority. It is also a priority for CEPI’s research and development investments.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with respect to the PM CARES Fund:
It has been registered as a Public Charitable Trust.
The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson (ex-officio) of the PM CARES Fund.
The fund is exempted from paying Income Tax.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: PM CARES Fund is a public charitable trust which has been set up keeping in mind the need for having a dedicated fund with the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic, and to provide relief to the affected. The trust deed of PM CARES Fund has been registered under the Registration Act, 1908, in New Delhi on 27th March 2020.
Statement 2 is correct:The Prime Minister of India is Chairperson (ex-officio) of the PM CARES Fund, and the Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance (Government of India) are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund.
Statement 3 is correct: PM CARES Fund accepts voluntary contributions by individuals/organisations as well as contributions as part of CSR from Companies/Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). However, contributions flowing out of budgetary sources of the PSUs are not accepted. The fund is exempted from paying Income Tax as per Section 10(23)(c) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Any contribution made to the PM CARES Fund by any Company or a PSU shall qualify as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure.
Incorrect
Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: PM CARES Fund is a public charitable trust which has been set up keeping in mind the need for having a dedicated fund with the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic, and to provide relief to the affected. The trust deed of PM CARES Fund has been registered under the Registration Act, 1908, in New Delhi on 27th March 2020.
Statement 2 is correct:The Prime Minister of India is Chairperson (ex-officio) of the PM CARES Fund, and the Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance (Government of India) are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund.
Statement 3 is correct: PM CARES Fund accepts voluntary contributions by individuals/organisations as well as contributions as part of CSR from Companies/Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). However, contributions flowing out of budgetary sources of the PSUs are not accepted. The fund is exempted from paying Income Tax as per Section 10(23)(c) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Any contribution made to the PM CARES Fund by any Company or a PSU shall qualify as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bharat Ratna Award of India:
It is the second highest civilian award of the country after Padma Vibhushan.
The recommendations for the award is made by the Prime Minister to the President of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Ans: B
Exp:
The Government of India instituted two civilian awards-Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan in 1954. The latter had three classes, namely Pahela Varg, Dusra Varg and Tisra Varg. These were subsequently renamed Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri vide Presidential Notification issued on January 8, 1955.
Statement 1 is incorrect:Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in India. It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. It is treated on a different footing from the Padma Award.
Statement 2 is correct:The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President of India. No formal recommendations are necessary for Bharat Ratna. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. The government (India) has conferred the Bharat Ratna Award on 45 persons till date.
Incorrect
Ans: B
Exp:
The Government of India instituted two civilian awards-Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan in 1954. The latter had three classes, namely Pahela Varg, Dusra Varg and Tisra Varg. These were subsequently renamed Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri vide Presidential Notification issued on January 8, 1955.
Statement 1 is incorrect:Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in India. It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. It is treated on a different footing from the Padma Award.
Statement 2 is correct:The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President of India. No formal recommendations are necessary for Bharat Ratna. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. The government (India) has conferred the Bharat Ratna Award on 45 persons till date.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):
It is a statutory authority constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963
According to the board, Maharashtra accounted for the highest share in the overall direct tax collections in the country in the financial year 2022-23.
The board classifies a person who has filed a return of income for the relevant assessment year as a taxpayer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct:The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory authority constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963. The officers of the Board, in their ex-officio capacity, also function as a Division of the Ministry dealing with matters relating to levy and collection of direct taxes.
Statement 2 is correct:Among states and union territories, Maharashtra accounted for 36.4 per cent (Rs 6.05 lakh crore) of the overall direct tax collections in the country in the financial year 2022-23, the highest by any state, followed by Delhi at 13.3 per cent (Rs 2.22 lakh crore), Karnataka at 12.5 per cent (Rs 2.08 lakh crore) and Tamil Nadu at 6.4 per cent (Rs 1.07 lakh crore).
Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu accounted for 70 per cent of the total net direct tax collections of Rs 16.27 lakh crore in the financial year 2022-23.
Statement 3 is correct: As per CBDT, a taxpayer is a person who either has filed a return of income for the relevant assessment year (AY) or, in whose case, tax has been deducted at source in the relevant financial year, even if the taxpayer has not filed the return of income.
Incorrect
Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct:The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory authority constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963. The officers of the Board, in their ex-officio capacity, also function as a Division of the Ministry dealing with matters relating to levy and collection of direct taxes.
Statement 2 is correct:Among states and union territories, Maharashtra accounted for 36.4 per cent (Rs 6.05 lakh crore) of the overall direct tax collections in the country in the financial year 2022-23, the highest by any state, followed by Delhi at 13.3 per cent (Rs 2.22 lakh crore), Karnataka at 12.5 per cent (Rs 2.08 lakh crore) and Tamil Nadu at 6.4 per cent (Rs 1.07 lakh crore).
Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu accounted for 70 per cent of the total net direct tax collections of Rs 16.27 lakh crore in the financial year 2022-23.
Statement 3 is correct: As per CBDT, a taxpayer is a person who either has filed a return of income for the relevant assessment year (AY) or, in whose case, tax has been deducted at source in the relevant financial year, even if the taxpayer has not filed the return of income.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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