Ans: D

Exp:

A 9-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held recently that the government cannot acquire and redistribute all privately owned properties deeming them “material resources of the community”, as mentioned in Article 39(b) of the Constitution.

• Statement 1 is not correct: By 44th Amendment Act 1978 of the Constitution of India, a new article namely 300A was inserted and titled as Right to Property.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Right to Property is a legal right available to any person. Article 300-A provides that no person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law.
• Statement 3  is not correct: Originally, there was also a right to property listed as a Fundamental Right under Article 31. However, in 1978, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act removed it from the Fundamental Rights category and reclassified it as a legal right in Part XII of the Constitution.

Ans: C

Exp: 

Winter Session of Parliament is scheduled to begin on November 25 and continue till December 20, Parliamentary Affairs Minister Kiren Rijiju said on November 5, 2024.

• Sessions of Parliament refer to the periods during which Parliament convenes to conduct its legislative business. 
  • During these sessions, Members of Parliament gather to debate and pass laws, scrutinize government actions, and discuss national issues.
• Statement 1 is correct: The President summons each House of Parliament from time to time or at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
• Statement 2 is correct: India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. 
• The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which currently comprises nine ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, and Law. 

Ans:  D

Exp:

The Constitutional validity of a statute cannot be challenged on the sole ground that it violated the Basic Structure of the Constitution, held by the Supreme Court in the case concerning the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004.

• • The Doctrine of Basic Structure is a form of judicial review that is used to test the legality of any legislation by the courts.
  • Statement 1 is correct:The term ‘basic structure’ is not defined in the Indian Constitution.
  • Statement 2  is correct:The “Basic structure” theory was applied for the first time after its introduction in the 1975 case Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain.
  • Statement 3  is correct:The doctrine was evolved by the Supreme Court in the 1973 landmark ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala. 
  • In a 7-6 verdict, a 13-judge Constitution Bench ruled that the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is inviolable, and could not be amended by Parliament.

• Components of Basic Structure:

• Supremacy of the Constitution;
• Republican and Democratic forms of Government.
• Secular character of the Constitution

Ans: B

Exp:

 The seventh session of the ISA Assembly elected its President and Co-president for a period of two years from 2024 to 2026. 

• International Solar Alliance is an international organization which works with governments to improve energy access and security worldwide and promote solar power as a sustainable transition to a carbon-neutral future. 
• Statement 1  is correct:The ISA was conceived as a joint effort by India and France to mobilize efforts against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions. 
• Statement 2  is not correct:It was conceptualized on the side-lines of the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris in 2015.
• ISA’s mission is to unlock US$ 1 trillion of investments in solar by 2030 while reducing the cost of the technology and its financing.

Ans: C

Exp:

The Election Commission of India (ECI) has rescheduled the bypolls from November 13 to November 20, following requests from political parties.

•  Bypolls, or bye-elections, are elections held to fill vacant seats in legislative bodies like the Parliament or State Legislatures.
  • These vacancies can arise due to the death, resignation, disqualification, or expulsion of a sitting member.
• Statement 1 is correct:  Under Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Election Commission of India (ECI) is required to fill these casual vacancies within six months from the date of occurrence, provided the remaining term of the seat is at least one year.
  • If less than one year remains, bye-elections are not mandatory.
• Mid-term elections in India occur when the Lok Sabha (lower house of Parliament) or State Legislative Assembly is dissolved before completing its full 5-year term, requiring fresh national elections.
• Statement 2 is correct: Mid term elections are conducted for the entire Lok Sabha or State Assembly while by-elections are held only for specific vacant seats while the rest of the house continues to function normally.