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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following cities:
Hyderabad
Gwalior
Mumbai
Kozhikode
Chennai
How many of the above Indian cities are included in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN)?
Correct
Option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
On World Cities Day (October 31) designated by the United Nation, 55 cities joined the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN).
With the latest additions, the Network now has 350 cities in more than one hundred countries, representing seven creative fields: Crafts and Folk Art, Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts and Music.
From India, Gwalior was recognized in the ‘Music’ category, while Kozhikode in the ‘Literature’ category.
The 55 creative cities also include Bukhara (Crafts and Folk Art), Casablanca (Media Arts), Chongqing (Design), Kathmandu (Film), Rio de Janeiro (Literature), and Ulaanbaatar (Crafts and Folk Art).
Indian cities included in UCCN:
Jaipur:- Crafts and Folk Arts (2015).
Varanasi:- Creative City of Music (2015).
Chennai:– Creative City of Music (2017).
Mumbai:– Film (2019).
Hyderabad:- Gastronomy (2019).
Srinagar:- Crafts and Folk Arts (2021).
Gwalior:- Sangeet (2023).
Kozhikode:– Creative in Literature (2023).
Incorrect
Option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
On World Cities Day (October 31) designated by the United Nation, 55 cities joined the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN).
With the latest additions, the Network now has 350 cities in more than one hundred countries, representing seven creative fields: Crafts and Folk Art, Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts and Music.
From India, Gwalior was recognized in the ‘Music’ category, while Kozhikode in the ‘Literature’ category.
The 55 creative cities also include Bukhara (Crafts and Folk Art), Casablanca (Media Arts), Chongqing (Design), Kathmandu (Film), Rio de Janeiro (Literature), and Ulaanbaatar (Crafts and Folk Art).
Indian cities included in UCCN:
Jaipur:- Crafts and Folk Arts (2015).
Varanasi:- Creative City of Music (2015).
Chennai:– Creative City of Music (2017).
Mumbai:– Film (2019).
Hyderabad:- Gastronomy (2019).
Srinagar:- Crafts and Folk Arts (2021).
Gwalior:- Sangeet (2023).
Kozhikode:– Creative in Literature (2023).
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points
Which one of the following is the context in which the “Bletchley Declaration” is mentioned?
Correct
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
Recently, Britain published a “Bletchley Declaration”, agreed with the European Union and 28 countries including India, United States and China.
AboutBletchley Declaration:
Summit: The 2-day summit opened at Britain’s World War II code-breaking centre in Bletchley Park, United Kingdom.
Aim: Boosting global efforts to cooperate on artificial intelligence (AI) safety.
Agenda: Focused on identifying risks of shared concern and building the scientific understanding of them, and also building cross-country policies to mitigate them.
Nations: To have stated a shared responsibility to address AI risks and take forward vital international collaboration on frontier AI safety and research.
Incorrect
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
Recently, Britain published a “Bletchley Declaration”, agreed with the European Union and 28 countries including India, United States and China.
AboutBletchley Declaration:
Summit: The 2-day summit opened at Britain’s World War II code-breaking centre in Bletchley Park, United Kingdom.
Aim: Boosting global efforts to cooperate on artificial intelligence (AI) safety.
Agenda: Focused on identifying risks of shared concern and building the scientific understanding of them, and also building cross-country policies to mitigate them.
Nations: To have stated a shared responsibility to address AI risks and take forward vital international collaboration on frontier AI safety and research.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points
‘ State Food Safety Index(SFSI)’ is released by which of the following ministry:
Correct
Option (a) is correct
Explanation:
19 out of 20 large states recorded a drop in their 2023 scores from 2019 in the state-wise food safety index(SFSI) published by Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
FSSAI, which works under the MInistry of Health and Family Welfare has developed the State Food Safety Index(SFSI) to measure the performance of states on various parameters of Food Safety.
The index is based on performance of State/ UT on six significant parameters, namely, Human Resources and Institutional Data, Compliance, Food Testing – Infrastructure and Surveillance, Training & Capacity Building, Consumer Empowerment and Improvement in SFSI Rank.
Incorrect
Option (a) is correct
Explanation:
19 out of 20 large states recorded a drop in their 2023 scores from 2019 in the state-wise food safety index(SFSI) published by Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
FSSAI, which works under the MInistry of Health and Family Welfare has developed the State Food Safety Index(SFSI) to measure the performance of states on various parameters of Food Safety.
The index is based on performance of State/ UT on six significant parameters, namely, Human Resources and Institutional Data, Compliance, Food Testing – Infrastructure and Surveillance, Training & Capacity Building, Consumer Empowerment and Improvement in SFSI Rank.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS):
It aims to reduce the AT&C(Aggregate Technical & Commercial losses) losses to pan-India levels of 12-15% by 2024-25.
It provides financial support to discoms opting for prepaid smart metering.
It is mandatory for the DISCOMs to become part of the scheme.
The private Sector power companies are not eligible for financial assistance under the scheme.
How many statement/s given above is/are correct?
Correct
Option (c) is correct
Explanation:
After experiencing sluggish growth, the smart meter network is set to grow significantly this year, with around 150 million meters in various stages of the bidding process.
The Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS) aims to improve the operational efficiencies and financial sustainability of state-owned distribution companies (discoms)/power departments by providing conditional financial assistance.
The scheme allocates Rs 10,000 crore for smart prepaid metering infrastructure across the country.
Statement 1 is correct: It aims toreduce the AT&C losses to pan-India levels of 12-15% by 2024-25.
Statement 2 is correct: RDSS envisions smart metering in operational expenditure mode and provides financial support to discoms opting for prepaid smart metering.
Statement 3 is not correct: The scheme would be optional to DISCOMs and will be implemented in urban and rural areas of all States/UTs except private DISCOMS.
Statement 4 is correct: All State-owned Distribution companies and State /UT Power Departments (referred to as DISCOMS collectively) excluding private Sector power companies will be eligible for financial assistance under the revamped scheme.
Incorrect
Option (c) is correct
Explanation:
After experiencing sluggish growth, the smart meter network is set to grow significantly this year, with around 150 million meters in various stages of the bidding process.
The Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS) aims to improve the operational efficiencies and financial sustainability of state-owned distribution companies (discoms)/power departments by providing conditional financial assistance.
The scheme allocates Rs 10,000 crore for smart prepaid metering infrastructure across the country.
Statement 1 is correct: It aims toreduce the AT&C losses to pan-India levels of 12-15% by 2024-25.
Statement 2 is correct: RDSS envisions smart metering in operational expenditure mode and provides financial support to discoms opting for prepaid smart metering.
Statement 3 is not correct: The scheme would be optional to DISCOMs and will be implemented in urban and rural areas of all States/UTs except private DISCOMS.
Statement 4 is correct: All State-owned Distribution companies and State /UT Power Departments (referred to as DISCOMS collectively) excluding private Sector power companies will be eligible for financial assistance under the revamped scheme.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding electoral bonds:
Electoral bonds enable anonymous donations to political parties by Indian citizens.
Available for purchase throughout the year, they can only be used to donate to political parties registered under the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud will hear petitions challenging the constitutional validity of electoral bonds scheme.
Statement 1 is correct: First announced during the Union Budget session in 2017, “electoral bonds” are interest-free bearer instruments, which means that they are payable to the bearer on demand, similar to a promissory note.
They allow Indian citizens or a body incorporated in India to purchase bonds, enabling anonymous donations to political parties.
Usually sold in denominations ranging from Rs1,000 to Rs1 crore, these bonds can be bought from authorised SBI branches through accounts complying with KYC norms.
Statement 2 is not correct: Electoral bonds aren’t available for purchase throughout the year and can only be purchased between 10-day windows falling in the months of January, April, July, and October.
They can only be used to donate to political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951, securing at least 1% of the votes polled in the last election to the House of the People or a Legislative Assembly.
Section 29A of the RPA deals with the registration of associations and bodies as political parties with the Election Commission.
Incorrect
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud will hear petitions challenging the constitutional validity of electoral bonds scheme.
Statement 1 is correct: First announced during the Union Budget session in 2017, “electoral bonds” are interest-free bearer instruments, which means that they are payable to the bearer on demand, similar to a promissory note.
They allow Indian citizens or a body incorporated in India to purchase bonds, enabling anonymous donations to political parties.
Usually sold in denominations ranging from Rs1,000 to Rs1 crore, these bonds can be bought from authorised SBI branches through accounts complying with KYC norms.
Statement 2 is not correct: Electoral bonds aren’t available for purchase throughout the year and can only be purchased between 10-day windows falling in the months of January, April, July, and October.
They can only be used to donate to political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951, securing at least 1% of the votes polled in the last election to the House of the People or a Legislative Assembly.
Section 29A of the RPA deals with the registration of associations and bodies as political parties with the Election Commission.
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now ! UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format Integration of PYQ within the booklet Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
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