PWOnlyIAS
June 20, 2024 04:15
18379
0
Get the Polity questions in UPSC prelims 2024. Check the trend analysis for Polity questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 along with the repeated themes.
Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims generally focus on certain themes that an examiner feels important. On analysis of previous question papers, we can say that there are 10-15 themes that are repeated multiple times in the question paper. Along with these static themes, polity questions in UPSC prelims also come from current affairs topics such as new laws, amendments, judgments, etc.
| Download UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2024 | |
| UPSC Prelims GS Paper I | Download Link |
| UPSC Prelims GS Paper II CSAT | Question Paper Download Link |
| Answer Key 2024 | GS Paper (01) Answer Key 2024 CSAT Paper Answer Key 2024 |
| DetaIled Answer Key 2024 | GS Paper (01) Answer Key 2024 CSAT Paper Answer Key 2024 |
Candidates will have to prepare basic topics such as Fundamental Rights, Preamble, DPSP, the workings of Parliament, etc along with current affairs. A thorough understanding of the core concepts is necessary to score well in this section. This article discusses polity questions asked in 2023 as well as repeated themes.
Let us have a look at the Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024, along with the trends of the themes from the Previous years questions. The Trend Analysis of the Previous year Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims is also given here.
The table below contains the Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 with Answers:
| Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 with Answers | |||||||||||||||||
| Serial No. | Question | Answer | |||||||||||||||
| 1 | How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four |
(d) Four | |||||||||||||||
| 2 | The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 |
(a) 1, 2 and 3 | |||||||||||||||
| 3 | Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four |
(b) Only two | |||||||||||||||
| 4 | Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
(d) 1, 2 and 3 | |||||||||||||||
| 5 | Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List. (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List. (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List. (d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List. |
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List. | |||||||||||||||
| 6 | Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 16 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 21 |
(d) Article 21 | |||||||||||||||
| 7 | Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
(c) 1 and 3 only | |||||||||||||||
| 8 | Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (c) T.T. Krishnamachari (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha |
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha | |||||||||||||||
| 9 | As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
(d) 1, 2 and 3 | |||||||||||||||
| 10 | Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 |
(c) 1, 2 and 3 | |||||||||||||||
| 11 | The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only | |||||||||||||||
| 12 | Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only |
(b) 1 and 2 only | |||||||||||||||
| 13 | A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action. (b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition. (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case. (d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy. |
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case. | |||||||||||||||
| 14 | Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
(b) 2 only | |||||||||||||||
| 15 | With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
(b) 2 only | |||||||||||||||
| 16 | With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
(a) 1 only | |||||||||||||||
| 17 | With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only |
(b) 1 and 2 | |||||||||||||||
| 18 | With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
|
(c) 2 and 3 | |||||||||||||||
Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 can be anticipated a little by seeing the Polity Questions of UPSC Prelims 2023 and other previous years. UPSC has been increasing the difficulty level of polity questions asked in prelims. Many of the themes were repeated but the nature of questions were different. The polity questions in UPSC prelims 2023 are as follows:
1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Answer: (c)
2) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a)
3) With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a)
4) Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality, and social security
Answer: (c)
5) In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Answer: (a)
6) Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d)
7) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
How many of the above constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (a)
8) With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
9) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c)
10) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
11) With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
| Action | The Act under which it is covered |
| Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms | The Official Secrets Act, 1923 |
| Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties | The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 |
| Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others | The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
12) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b)
13) Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c)
14) Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (a)
15) Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India According to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c)
16) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c)
17) Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
18) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care.
Statement II: Under India’s decentralized approach to healthcare delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d)
UPSC has been asking 15-20 questions from the polity section in prelims. This makes polity an important part of preparation. Below is the number of polity questions asked in the last few years in prelims.
| Year of Preliminary Examination | Number of Polity Questions |
| 2023 | 18 |
| 2022 | 15 |
| 2021 | 11 |
| 2020 | 17 |
| 2019 | 15 |
| 2018 | 13 |
| 2017 | 22 |
| 2016 | 7 |
| 2015 | 13 |
| 2014 | 14 |
Every candidate needs to understand the Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims in the previous years to tackle the Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024. UPSC has been increasing the difficulty level of questions asked in the exam. In this regard, the difficulty level of polity questions has increased, and hence, candidates need to adopt a strategy to score well in this section. Some of these strategies are:
Polity questions in UPSC prelims are repeated from certain themes. These themes are vital to be covered in order to attempt a maximum number of questions. The following table contains a list of themes that are vital for UPSC prelims:
| Themes | Significance |
| Basics of Constitution | 2-3 questions from topics such as Preamble. |
| Fundamental Rights | 3-4 questions directly or indirectly |
| Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) | 1-3 questions from associated themes |
| Legislature | 1-5 questions from topics such as Parliament |
| Executive | 2-3 questions from topics such as President, Prime Minister etc. |
| Judiciary | 1-3 questions from Supreme Court, High Court etc. |
| Centre-State Relations | 1-3 questions from topics such as Emergency |
| Schedules of Constitution | 1-2 questions from topics such as 5th and 6th schedule |
| Constitutional and Non Constitutional Bodies | 2-3 questions every year |
| Panchayats and Municipalities | 1-3 questions every year |
Boost your UPSC 2025 preparation by enrolling in the top courses from Physics Wallah! Join now!
.png)
Connect with our experts to get free counselling & start preparing
Learn From India's Best Faculty
Learn From India's Best Faculty
<div class="new-fform">
</div>
Latest Comments