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Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 , Check Themes and Trends Analysis!

PWOnlyIAS June 20, 2024 04:15 14390 0

Get the Polity questions in UPSC prelims 2024. Check the trend analysis for Polity questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 along with the repeated themes.

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 , Check Themes and Trends Analysis!

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims generally focus on certain themes that an examiner feels important. On analysis of previous question papers, we can say that there are 10-15 themes that are repeated multiple times in the question paper. Along with these static themes, polity questions in UPSC prelims also come from current affairs topics such as new laws, amendments, judgments, etc. 

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Candidates will have to prepare basic topics such as Fundamental Rights, Preamble, DPSP, the workings of Parliament, etc along with current affairs. A thorough understanding of the core concepts is necessary to score well in this section. This article discusses polity questions asked in 2023 as well as repeated themes.

Let us have a look at the Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024, along with the trends of the themes from the Previous years questions. The Trend Analysis of the Previous year Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims is also given here.

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 with Answers

The table below contains the Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 with Answers:

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 with Answers
Serial No. Question Answer
1 How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

(d) Four
2 The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

  1. Konkani
  2. Manipuri
  3. Nepali
  4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

(a) 1, 2 and 3
3 Consider the following pairs:

  Party Its Leader
1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

(b) Only two
4 Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

  1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
  2. Emergency provisions are given in fu Part XVIII of the Constitution.
  3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3
5 Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
6 Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 21

(d) Article 21
7 Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

  1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
  2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
  3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 only
8 Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) T.T. Krishnamachari      

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha 

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
9 As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

  1. Addition
  2. Variation
  3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:      

(a) 1 and 2 only     

(b) 2 and 3 only      

(c) 1 and 3 only      

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

(d) 1, 2 and 3
10 Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

  1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
  2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
  3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
  4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

(c)  1, 2 and 3
11 The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

  1. Governor of the Constituent State
  2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
  3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
  4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only      

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
12 Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

  1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
  2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
  3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only 

(b) 1 and 2 only
13 A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a)  a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b)  the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

 (c)  the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

(d)  the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

(c)  the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
14 Consider the following statements:

  1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
  2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) 2 only
15 With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

  1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
  2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) 2 only
16 With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:      

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration.

  1. He/she shall not preside.
  2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
  3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) 1 only
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
  2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
  3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2
17 With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
  2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
  3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

TBU
18 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
  2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
  3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

 

(c) 2 and 3

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2023

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 can be anticipated a little by seeing the Polity Questions of UPSC Prelims 2023 and other previous years. UPSC has been increasing the difficulty level of polity questions asked in prelims. Many of the themes were repeated but the nature of questions were different. The polity questions in UPSC prelims 2023 are as follows:

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1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(c) Fair application of law

(d) Equality before law

Answer: (c)

2) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a)

3) With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
  2. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
  3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (a)

4) Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality, and social security

Answer: (c)

5) In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 44th Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Answer: (a)

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6) Consider the following statements:

  1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
  2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
  3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (d)

7) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:

  1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
  2. The National Human Rights Commission
  3. The National Law Commission
  4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (a)

8) With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Within a State, the notification of an area as a Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
  2. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
  3. Within a State, the notification of an area as a Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b)

9) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

10) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

  1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
  2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security.
  3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b)

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11) With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Action The Act under which it is covered
Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms The Official Secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b)

12) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :

  1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
  2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
  3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
  4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

Srijan 2024

13) Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

14) Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

  1. The members nominated to either the House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
  2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
  3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
  4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (a)

15) Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India According to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :

Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.

Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

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16) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

  1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women.
  2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
  3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
  4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (c)

17) Consider the following statements:

  1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
  2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
  3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, the confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b)

18) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care.

Statement II: Under India’s decentralized approach to healthcare delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d)

Also Read: Polity Important Topics for UPSC Prelims 2024

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims in the Last Few Years

UPSC has been asking 15-20 questions from the polity section in prelims. This makes polity an important part of preparation. Below is the number of polity questions asked in the last few years in prelims.

Year of Preliminary Examination Number of Polity Questions
2023 18
2022 15
2021 11
2020 17
2019 15
2018 13
2017 22
2016 7
2015 13
2014 14

Polity questions in UPSC prelims

Also Read: Prelims Polity Syllabus

Tackling Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims

Every candidate needs to understand the Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims in the previous years to tackle the Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024. UPSC has been increasing the difficulty level of questions asked in the exam. In this regard, the difficulty level of polity questions has increased, and hence, candidates need to adopt a strategy to score well in this section. Some of these strategies are:

  • Read NCERT Books: Begin with NCERT books and later progress to standard books such as Polity by Laxmikant. This will clarify your basic concepts.
  • Analyze PYQs: By analyzing PYQs, you can identify repeated themes. This will help you score more marks in the prelims exam.
  • Regular Revision: Polity involves remembering certain factual information. This can only be achieved through regular revisions.
  • Attempt Test Series: Candidates need to develop question-solving abilities to score good marks. This ability can only be developed through regular mock test series.
  • Keep Track of Current Affairs: UPSC has been asking questions about themes that have been covered in the news. Candidates have to keep track of current developments.

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Repeated Themes of Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims

Polity questions in UPSC prelims are repeated from certain themes. These themes are vital to be covered in order to attempt a maximum number of questions. The following table contains a list of themes that are vital for UPSC prelims:

Themes Significance
Basics of Constitution 2-3 questions from topics such as Preamble.
Fundamental Rights 3-4 questions directly or indirectly
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) 1-3 questions from associated themes
Legislature 1-5 questions from topics such as Parliament
Executive 2-3 questions from topics such as President, Prime Minister etc.
Judiciary 1-3 questions from Supreme Court, High Court etc.
Centre-State Relations 1-3 questions from topics such as Emergency
Schedules of Constitution 1-2 questions from topics such as 5th and 6th schedule
Constitutional and Non Constitutional Bodies 2-3 questions every year
Panchayats and Municipalities 1-3 questions every year

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Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims FAQs

The difficulty level of polity questions in UPSC prelims ranges from moderate to difficult. The difficulty level of Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims may also vary according to the preparation level of the individual candidate.

Yes. UPSC gives importance to certain themes when it comes to framing questions in prelims exam. The most topics of Polity in UPSC Prelims include Basics of Constitution, Fundamental Rights, Legislature, Executive, and Current additions to the subject.

On average, UPSC asks about 15-20 questions from the polity section in UPSC prelims exam. It may vary from year to year, depending upon the difficulty of the Examination.

Yes. Some of the questions asked in UPSC prelims from polity are directly based on information given in NCERT books.

UPSC asks questions from themes that are currently in news. Hence, current affairs are an important part of UPSC prelims polity subject.
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 Final Result – CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION, 2023.   Udaan-Prelims Wallah ( Static ) booklets 2024 released both in english and hindi : Download from Here!     Download UPSC Mains 2023 Question Papers PDF  Free Initiative links -1) Download Prahaar 3.0 for Mains Current Affairs PDF both in English and Hindi 2) Daily Main Answer Writing  , 3) Daily Current Affairs , Editorial Analysis and quiz ,  4) PDF Downloads  UPSC Prelims 2023 Trend Analysis cut-off and answer key

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 Final Result – CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION, 2023.   Udaan-Prelims Wallah ( Static ) booklets 2024 released both in english and hindi : Download from Here!     Download UPSC Mains 2023 Question Papers PDF  Free Initiative links -1) Download Prahaar 3.0 for Mains Current Affairs PDF both in English and Hindi 2) Daily Main Answer Writing  , 3) Daily Current Affairs , Editorial Analysis and quiz ,  4) PDF Downloads  UPSC Prelims 2023 Trend Analysis cut-off and answer key

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UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format
Integration of PYQ within the booklet
Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions
हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध
Quick Revise Now !
UDAAN PRELIMS WALLAH
Comprehensive coverage with a concise format
Integration of PYQ within the booklet
Designed as per recent trends of Prelims questions
हिंदी में भी उपलब्ध

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