Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 , Check Themes and Trends Analysis!

PWOnlyIAS May 07, 2024 06:30 260 0

Polity questions in UPSC prelims hold a significant weightage in the overall marks. Check all the questions asked from polity in prelims 2023 along with the repeated themes!

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2024 , Check Themes and Trends Analysis!

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims generally focus on certain themes that an examiner feels important. On analysis of previous question papers, we can say that there are 10-15 themes that are repeated multiple times in the question paper.

Along with these static themes, polity questions in UPSC prelims also come from current affairs topics such as new laws, amendments, judgments, etc.

Candidates will have to prepare basic topics such as Fundamental Rights, Preamble, DPSP, the workings of Parliament, etc along with current affairs. A thorough understanding of the core concepts is necessary to score well in this section. This article discusses polity questions asked in 2023 as well as repeated themes.

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2023

UPSC has been increasing the difficulty level of polity questions asked in prelims. Many of the themes were repeated but the nature of questions were different. The polity questions in UPSC prelims 2023 are as follows:

1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

Answer: (c)

2) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a)

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3) With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (a)

4) Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality, and social security

Answer: (c)

5) In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Answer: (a)

6) Consider the following statements:

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d)

7) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:

The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (a)

8) With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

Within a State, the notification of an area as a Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
Within a State, the notification of an area as a Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

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9) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

10) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security.
To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

11) With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Action	The Act under which it is covered
Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms	The Official Secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties	The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others	The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

12) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :

It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

13) Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

14) Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

The members nominated to either the House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (a)

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15) Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India According to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :

Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.

Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

16) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women.
It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (c)

17) Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, the confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

18) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care.

Statement II: Under India’s decentralized approach to healthcare delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d)

Also Read: Polity Important Topics for UPSC Prelims 2024

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims in the Last Few Years

UPSC has been asking 15-20 questions from the polity section in prelims. This makes polity an important part of preparation. Below is the number of polity questions asked in the last few years in prelims.

Year of Preliminary Examination	Number of Polity Questions
2023	18
2022	15
2021	11
2020	17
2019	15
2018	13
2017	22
2016	7
2015	13
2014	14

Polity questions in UPSC prelims

Also Read: Prelims Polity Syllabus

Tackling Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims

UPSC has been increasing the difficulty level of questions asked in the exam. In this regard, the difficulty level of polity questions has increased, and hence, candidates need to adopt a strategy to score well in this section. Some of these strategies are:

Read NCERT Books: Begin with NCERT books and later progress to standard books such as Polity by Laxmikant. This will clarify your basic concepts.
Analyze PYQs: By analyzing PYQs, you can identify repeated themes. This will help you score more marks in the prelims exam.
Regular Revision: Polity involves remembering certain factual information. This can only be achieved through regular revisions.
Attempt Test Series: Candidates need to develop question-solving abilities to score good marks. This ability can only be developed through regular test series.
Keep Track of Current Affairs: UPSC has been asking questions about themes that have been covered in the news. Candidates have to keep track of current developments.

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Repeated Themes of Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims

Polity questions in UPSC prelims are repeated from certain themes. These themes are vital to be covered in order to attempt a maximum number of questions. The following table contains a list of themes that are vital for UPSC prelims:

Themes	Significance
Basics of Constitution	2-3 questions from topics such as Preamble.
Fundamental Rights	3-4 questions directly or indirectly
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)	1-3 questions from associated themes
Legislature	1-5 questions from topics such as Parliament
Executive	2-3 questions from topics such as President, Prime Minister etc.
Judiciary	1-3 questions from Supreme Court, High Court etc.
Centre-State Relations	1-3 questions from topics such as Emergency
Schedules of Constitution	1-2 questions from topics such as 5th and 6th schedule
Constitutional and Non Constitutional Bodies	2-3 questions every year
Panchayats and Municipalities	1-3 questions every year

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